Refresh CTFL-Foundation Secret 2021

NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

• A. The version(s) of the software under test
• B. The test execution schedule
• C. Expected results and actual results
• D. Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
A top-down development strategy affects which level of testing most?

• A. Component testing
• B. Integration testing
• C. System testing
• D. User acceptance testing

Answer: B

Explanation:
The development strategy will affect the component testing (option (A)), in so far as it cannot be tested unless it has been built. Options (C) and (D) require the system to have been delivered; at these points the development strategy followed is
not important to the tester. Option (B) needs knowledge of the development strategy in order to determine the order in which components will be integrated and tested.

NEW QUESTION 3
“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

• A. Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.
• B. Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.
• C. Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.
• D. Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

• A. an error
• B. a fault
• C. a failure
• D. a defect

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
“How much testing is enough?”

• A. This question is impossible to answer
• B. This question is easy to answer
• C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
• D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

• A. When the code is complete.
• B. When the design is complete.
• C. When the software requirements have been approved.
• D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
What is important to do when working with software development models?

• A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
• B. To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
• C. To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
• D. To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice vers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
Which pair of definitions is correct?

• A. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software.
• B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; retesting enables developers to isolate the problem.
• C. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; retesting runs new tests.
• D. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Regression testing is testing that nothing has regressed. Retesting (or confirmation testing) confirms the fix is correct by running the same test after the fix has been made. No other option has both of these as true.

NEW QUESTION 9
Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

• A. No priority or severity assigned
• B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
• C. No mentioning of reproduceability
• D. No classification on type of incident

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
What is retesting?

• A. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem.
• B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced.
• C. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met.
• D. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solve

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

• A. Regression testing
• B. Maintenance testing
• C. Confirmation testing
• D. None of the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
IEEE 1028 also defines “management review” as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit

• A. Align technical concepts during the design phase
• B. Establish a common understanding of requirements
• C. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
• D. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
Component testing may include:

• A. Sociability testing.
• B. User acceptance testing.
• C. Beta testing.
• D. The use of stubs and driver

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements are correct for walkthroughs?
(i) Often led by the author.
(ii) Documented and defined results.
(iii) All participants have defined roles.
(iv) Used to aid learning.
(v) Main purpose is to find defects.

• A. (i) and (v) are correct.
• B. (ii) and (iii) are correct.
• C. (i) and (iv) are correct.
• D. (iii) and (iv) are correc

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
To test a function, the programmer has to write a , which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

• A. Stub
• B. Driver
• C. Proxy
• D. None of the above

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase?

• A. Creating test suites from the test cases
• B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
• C. Comparing actual results
• D. Designing the Tests

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17
Testing should be stopped when:

• A. All the planned tests have been run
• B. Time has run out
• C. All faults have been fixed correctly
• D. Both A and C
• E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 18
Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

• A. Defects
• B. Trends analysis
• C. Test Effectiveness
• D. Time Spent Testing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19
In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. 1 credit

• A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.
• B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.
• C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.
• D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.
• E. The maturity of the organization, e.
• F. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
• G. It builds on large set of historical data
• H. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort

Answer: ADE

NEW QUESTION 20
In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

• A. Takes minutes of the meeting
• B. Mediates between people
• C. Takes telephone calls
• D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21
Consider the following pseudo code
1. Begin
2. Read Gender
3. Print “Dear”
4. If Gender = ‘female’
5. Print (“Ms”)
6. Else
7. Print ( “Mr”)
8. Endif
9. End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22
Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

• A. Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.
• B. Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.
• C. Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.
• D. Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closur

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23
From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

• A. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software
• B. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
• C. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing
• D. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases
• E. a and b.
• F. c and d.
• G. a and d.
• H. b and

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 24
What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

• A. To identify the requirements for using a tool
• B. To make a selection between alternative tools
• C. To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective
• D. To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 25
Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

• A. Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code
• B. Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards
• C. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards
• D. Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 26
What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

• A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
• B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
• C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
• D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 27
The purpose of requirement phase is:

• A. To freeze requirements
• B. To understand user needs
• C. To define the scope of testing
• D. All of the above

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 28
A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows: Fail: 0–39 inclusive Pass: 40–59 inclusive Merit: 60–79 inclusive
Distinction: 80–100 inclusive
In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

• A. 25, 40, 60, 75
• B. 0, 45, 79, 87
• C. 35, 40, 59, 69
• D. 25, 39, 60, 81

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
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