Up To The Minute ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level ISEB-SWT2 Training Tools

NEW QUESTION 1

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

• A. Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.
• B. Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.
• C. Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.
• D. Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2

What is a test condition?

• A. A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.
• B. An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.
• C. The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.
• D. All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

• A. Informal review.
• B. Management review.
• C. Inspection.
• D. Walkthrough
• E. Technical Review

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 4

Consider the following pseudo code
* 1. Begin
* 2. Read Gender
* 3. Print “Dear”
* 4. If Gender = ‘female’
* 5. Print (“Ms”)
* 6. Else
* 7. Print ( “Mr”)
* 8. Endif
* 9. End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

Which is not the fundamental test process?

• A. Planning and control
• B. Test closure activities
• C. Analysis and design
• D. None

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

• A. They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete
• B. They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available
• C. They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level
• D. They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

• A. Test planning and control
• B. Test implementation & execution
• C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
• D. Test project closure

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
Consider the following pseudo code:
* 1 Begin
* 2 Read Time
* 3 If Time < 12 Then
* 4 Print(Time, "am")
* 5 Endif
* 6 If Time > 12 Then
* 7 Print(Time 12, "pm")
* 8 Endif
* 9 If Time = 12 Then
* 10 Print (Time, "noon")
* 11 Endif
* 12 End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
The three decisions are in sequence and the conditions are all mutually exclusive (if any one is true the others must be false). Hence a test case that makes the first decision true will make the second and third decisions false and so on.
So test case 1 (say Time = 6) would exercise the path True, False, False, test case 2 (say Time = 15) would exercise the path False, True, False. Test case 3 would have to be Time = 12. This combination achieves 100 per cent decision coverage because each decision has been exercised through its true and its false outcomes.

NEW QUESTION 9

Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:

• A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
• B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
• C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
• D. All of the above

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit

• A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
• B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
• C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
• D. All document reviews involve the development team.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

A washing machine has three temperature bands for different kinds of fabrics: fragile fabrics are washed at temperatures between 15 and 30 degrees Celsius; normal fabrics are washed at temperatures between 31 and 60 degrees Celsius; heavily soiled and tough fabrics are washed at temperatures between 61 and 100 degrees Celsius.
Which of the following contains only values that are in different equivalence partitions?

• A. 15, 30, 60
• B. 20, 35, 60
• C. 25, 45, 75
• D. 12, 35, 55

Answer: C

Explanation:
Answer (A) includes two values from the lower partition, answer (B) contains two values from the second partition, answer (D) contains one value that is invalid (out of range).

NEW QUESTION 12
Consider the following pseudo code:
* 1 Begin
* 2 Read Time
* 3 If Time < 12 Then
* 4 Print(Time, "am")
* 5 Endif
* 6 If Time > 12 Then
* 7 Print(Time 12, "pm")
* 8 Endif
* 9 If Time = 12 Then
* 10 Print (Time, "noon")
* 11 Endif
* 12 End
If the test cases Time = 11 and Time = 15 were input, what level of decision coverage would be achieved?

• A. 100% or 6/6
• B. 50% or 3/6
• C. 67% or 4/6
• D. 83% or 5/6

Answer: D

Explanation:
Test case 1 exercises the decision outcomes True, False, False Test case 2 exercises the decision outcomes False, True, False This leaves the True outcome of decision 3 not exercised.
Of the 6 possible decision outcomes, 5 have been exercised, so the decision coverage is 5/6 (about 83%).

NEW QUESTION 13

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

• A. Test planning
• B. Test execution
• C. Test management
• D. Test design

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

• A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations
• B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system
• C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment
• D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
• E. Development activities for unit and integration testing
• F. Reviews on requirements documentation
• G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 15

What do static analysis tools analyze?

• A. Design
• B. Test cases
• C. Requirements
• D. Program code

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

• A. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
• B. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, designspecifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
• C. Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
• D. Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17

For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

• A. Test planning and control
• B. Test analysis and design
• C. Test implementation and execution
• D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: C

Explanation:
Incident management tools are most useful during test implementation and execution as this is the stage at which the tool is used to raise, manage, retest and close incidents.
The data collected during the defect life cycle can then be manipulated into information that is useful for other activities within the fundamental test process.
Information on numbers of defects outstanding may be useful for evaluating exit criteria (option (D)). This information could also be used for planning future testing and for taking control (option (A)).
Incident management tools can also assist in test analysis and design (option (B)) as information about defects found when testing the previous release of the system could be used when analyzing the type of testing required for the next enhancement.

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

• A. Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system
• B. Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.
• C. Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system
• D. Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate? (i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.
(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system. (v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi) Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

• A. ii, iii, iv, v
• B. i, iii, v, vi
• C. i, ii, iv, v
• D. iii, iv, v, vi

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

• A. Top down
• B. Big-bang
• C. Bottom up
• D. Functional incrementation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following terms is used to describe the management of software components comprising an integrated system?

• A. Configuration management
• B. Incident management
• C. Test monitoring
• D. Risk management

Answer: A

Explanation:
Incident management is the collection and processing of incidents raised when errors and defects are discovered. Test monitoring identifies the status of the testing activity on a continuous basis. Risk management identifies, analyses and mitigates risks to the project and the product. Configuration management is concerned with the management of changes to software components and their associated documentation and testware.

NEW QUESTION 22

Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

• A. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.i
• B. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.ii
• C. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.i
• D. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
• E. (i) and (ii)
• F. (i) and (iv)
• G. (ii) and (iii)
• H. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23

When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

• A. Regression testing
• B. Maintenance testing
• C. Confirmation testing
• D. None of the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

• A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
• B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
• C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
• D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

• A. No priority or severity assigned
• B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
• C. No mentioning of reproduceability
• D. No classification on type of incident

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

• A. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.
• B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
• C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.
• D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

Answer: B

Explanation:
All other answers have at least one stage of the fundamental test process in the wrong sequence.

NEW QUESTION 27

Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit

• A. Total number of defects foundI
• B. Percentage of test cases executedII
• C. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spentI
• D. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
• E. (i) and (ii)
• F. (i) and (iv)
• G. (ii) and (iii)
• H. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 28

Which of the following are most likely to be used when developing a test strategy or test approach?
(i) Failure-based approach (ii)Test specification approach
(iii) Model-based approach (iv)Finance-based approach

• A. (iii) and (ii)
• B. (i) and (iv)
• C. (ii) and (i)
• D. (i) and (iii)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 29
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