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2021 Apr SY0-401 exam question

Q21. A security administrator must implement a secure key exchange protocol that will allow company clients to autonomously exchange symmetric encryption keys over an unencrypted channel. Which of the following MUST be implemented? 

A. SHA-256 

B. AES 

C. Diffie-Hellman 

D. 3DES 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 


Q22. Which of the following describes a type of malware which is difficult to reverse engineer in a virtual lab? 

A. Armored virus 

B. Polymorphic malware 

C. Logic bomb 

D. Rootkit 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

An armored virus is a type of virus that has been designed to thwart attempts by analysts from examining its code by using various methods to make tracing, disassembling and reverse engineering more difficult. An Armored Virus may also protect itself from antivirus programs, making it more difficult to trace. To do this, the Armored Virus attempts to trick the antivirus program into believing its location is somewhere other than where it really is on the system. 


Q23. A technician is unable to manage a remote server. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall for remote server management? (Select TWO). 

A. 22 

B. 135 

C. 137 

D. 143 

E. 443 

F. 3389 

Answer: A,F 

Explanation: 

A secure remote administration solution and Remote Desktop protocol is required. 

Secure Shell (SSH) is a secure remote administration solution and makes use of TCP port 22. 

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389. 


Q24. A security administrator is auditing a database server to ensure the correct security measures are in place to protect the data. Some of the fields consist of people's first name, last name, home address, date of birth and mothers last name. Which of the following describes this type of data? 

A. PII 

B. PCI 

C. Low 

D. Public 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 


Q25. During a disaster recovery planning session, a security administrator has been tasked with determining which threats and vulnerabilities pose a risk to the organization. Which of the following should the administrator rate as having the HIGHEST frequency of risk to the organization? 

A. Hostile takeovers 

B. Large scale natural disasters 

C. Malware and viruses 

D. Corporate espionage 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 


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Q26. Which of the following risk concepts requires an organization to determine the number of failures per year? 

A. SLE 

B. ALE 

C. MTBF 

D. Quantitative analysis 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

ALE is the annual loss expectancy value. This is a monetary measure of how much loss you could expect in a year. 


Q27. Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address? 

A. DNAT 

B. PAT 

C. DNS 

D. DMZ 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses. 

Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network's router. When Computer X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address. 


Q28. Which of the following would provide the STRONGEST encryption? 

A. Random one-time pad 

B. DES with a 56-bit key 

C. AES with a 256-bit key 

D. RSA with a 1024-bit key 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

One-time pads are the only truly completely secure cryptographic implementations. 

They are so secure for two reasons. First, they use a key that is as long as a plaintext message. 

That means there is no pattern in the key application for an attacker to use. Also, one-time pad 

keys are used only once and then discarded. So even if you could break a one-time pad cipher, 

that same key would never be used again, so knowledge of the key would be useless. 


Q29. Which of the following provides the LEAST availability? 

A. RAID 0 

B. RAID 1 

C. RAID 3 

D. RAID 5 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID 0 is disk striping. It uses multiple drives and maps them together as a single physical drive. This is done primarily for performance, not for fault tolerance. If any drive in a RAID 0 array fails, the entire logical drive becomes unusable. 


Q30. Pete, a security engineer, is trying to inventory all servers in a rack. The engineer launches RDP sessions to five different PCs and notices that the hardware properties are similar. Additionally, the MAC addresses of all five servers appear on the same switch port. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? 

A. The system is running 802.1x. 

B. The system is using NAC. 

C. The system is in active-standby mode. 

D. The system is virtualized. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.