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Q401. Which of the following provides the strongest authentication security on a wireless network?
A. MAC filter
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. Disable SSID broadcast
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) authentication protocols were designed to address the core, easy-to-crack problems of WEP.
Q402. Joe, a network security engineer, has visibility to network traffic through network monitoring tools.
However, he’s concerned that a disgruntled employee may be targeting a server containing the company’s financial records. Which of the following security mechanism would be MOST appropriate to confirm Joe’s suspicion?
A. HIDS
B. HIPS
C. NIPS
D. NIDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A host-based IDS (HIDS) is an intrusion detection system that runs as a service on a host computer system. It is used to monitor the machine logs, system events, and application activity for signs of intrusion. It is useful for detecting attacks that originate outside the organization as well as attacks by internal users logged on to the system.
Q403. A security administrator wants to deploy security controls to mitigate the threat of company employees’ personal information being captured online. Which of the following would BEST serve this purpose?
A. Anti-spyware
B. Antivirus
C. Host-based firewall
D. Web content filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spyware monitors a user’s activity and uses network protocols to reports it to a third party without the user’s knowledge. This is usually accomplished using a tracking cookie.
Q404. Which of the following security awareness training is BEST suited for data owners who are concerned with protecting the confidentiality of their data?
A. Social networking use training
B. Personally owned device policy training
C. Tailgating awareness policy training
D. Information classification training
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information classification is done by confidentiality and comprises of three categories, namely: public use, internal use and restricted use. Knowing these categories and how to handle data according to its category is essential in protecting the confidentiality of the data.
Q405. A process in which the functionality of an application is tested without any knowledge of the internal mechanisms of the application is known as:
A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Black hat testing
D. Gray box testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is aware of what the software is supposed to do but is not aware of how it does it. For instance, the tester is aware that a particular input returns a certain, invariable output but is not aware of how the software produces the output in the first place.
Most up-to-date SY0-401 free exam questions:
Q406. A company uses PGP to ensure that sensitive email is protected. Which of the following types of cryptography is being used here for the key exchange?
A. Symmetric
B. Session-based
C. Hashing
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A
Explanation:
PGP combines symmetric-key encryption and public-key encryption. The message is encrypted using a symmetric encryption algorithm, which requires a symmetric key. Each symmetric key is used only once and is also called a session key.
Q407. An administrator is building a development environment and requests that three virtual servers are cloned and placed in a new virtual network isolated from the production network. Which of the following describes the environment the administrator is building?
A. Cloud
B. Trusted
C. Sandbox
D. Snapshot
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sandboxing is the process of isolating a system before installing new applications on it so as to restrict any potential malware that may be embedded in the new application from being able to cause harm to production systems.
Q408. Which of the following is mainly used for remote access into the network?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most gateways that control access to the network have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS server. Therefore, it can be inferred that RADIUS is primarily used for remote access.
Q409. A software company has completed a security assessment. The assessment states that the company should implement fencing and lighting around the property. Additionally, the assessment states that production releases of their software should be digitally signed. Given the recommendations, the company was deficient in which of the following core security areas? (Select TWO).
A. Fault tolerance
B. Encryption
C. Availability
D. Integrity
E. Safety
F. Confidentiality
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Aspects such as fencing, proper lighting, locks, CCTV, Escape plans Drills, escape routes and
testing controls form part of safety controls.
Integrity refers to aspects such as hashing, digital signatures, certificates and non-repudiation – all
of which has to do with data integrity.
Q410. Which of the following transportation encryption protocols should be used to ensure maximum security between a web browser and a web server?
A. SSLv2
B. SSHv1
C. RSA
D. TLS
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP Secure HTTP Secure (HTTPS) is the protocol used for “secure” web pages that users should see when they must enter personal information such as credit card numbers, passwords, and other identifiers. It combines HTTP with SSL/TLS to provide encrypted communication. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a security protocol that expands upon SSL. Many industry analysts predict that TLS will replace SSL, and it is also referred to as SSL 3.1.