Exam Code: sy0 401 braindump (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q351. A malicious individual is attempting to write too much data to an application’s memory. Which of the following describes this type of attack?
A. Zero-day
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. XSRF
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
Q352. Matt, a security administrator, wants to ensure that the message he is sending does not get intercepted or modified in transit. This concern relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Accounting
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Integrity means ensuring that data has not been altered. Hashing and message authentication codes are the most common methods to accomplish this. In addition, ensuring nonrepudiation via digital signatures supports integrity.
Q353. A company hires outside security experts to evaluate the security status of the corporate network. All of the company’s IT resources are outdated and prone to crashing. The company requests that all testing be performed in a way which minimizes the risk of system failures. Which of the following types of testing does the company want performed?
A. Penetration testing
B. WAF testing
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. White box testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning has minimal impact on network resource due to the passive nature of the scanning.
A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.
Q354. An overseas branch office within a company has many more technical and non-technical security incidents than other parts of the company. Which of the following management controls should be introduced to the branch office to improve their state of security?
A. Initial baseline configuration snapshots
B. Firewall, IPS and network segmentation
C. Event log analysis and incident response
D. Continuous security monitoring processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q355. Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. HTTPS
B. HMAC
C. GPG
D. SSH
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.
Q356. Which of the following ports and protocol types must be opened on a host with a host-based firewall to allow incoming SFTP connections?
A. 21/UDP
B. 21/TCP
C. 22/UDP
D. 22/TCP
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Q357. Which of the following network devices is used to analyze traffic between various network interfaces?
A. Proxies
B. Firewalls
C. Content inspection
D. Sniffers
Answer: D
Explanation:
A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer.
Q358. The incident response team has received the following email message.
From: monitor@ext-company.com To: security@company.com Subject: Copyright infringement
A copyright infringement alert was triggered by IP address 13.10.66.5 at 09: 50: 01 GMT.
After reviewing the following web logs for IP 13.10.66.5, the team is unable to correlate and identify the incident.
09:
45: 33 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/login.asp?user=john
09:
50: 22 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/logout.asp?user=anne
10: 50: 01 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/access.asp?file=movie.mov
11: 02: 45 13.10.65.5 http: //remote.site.com/download.asp?movie.mov=ok
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the incident response team is unable to identify and correlate the incident?
A. The logs are corrupt and no longer forensically sound.
B. Traffic logs for the incident are unavailable.
C. Chain of custody was not properly maintained.
D. Incident time offsets were not accounted for.
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system.
Q359. Ann, a security analyst, has discovered that her company has very high staff turnover and often user accounts are not disabled after an employee leaves the company. Which of the following could Ann implement to help identify accounts that are still active for terminated employees?
A. Routine audits
B. Account expirations
C. Risk assessments
D. Change management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q360. Which of the following is a management control?
A. Logon banners
B. Written security policy
C. SYN attack prevention
D. Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment; and written security policy falls in this category.