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Q361. A user has plugged in a wireless router from home with default configurations into a network jack at the office. This is known as:
A. an evil twin.
B. an IV attack.
C. a rogue access point.
D. an unauthorized entry point.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q362. A firewall technician has been instructed to disable all non-secure ports on a corporate firewall. The technician has blocked traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139. The technician has allowed traffic on ports 22 and 443. Which of the following correctly lists the protocols blocked and allowed?
A. Blocked: TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: HTTPS, FTP
B. Blocked: FTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, HTTPS
C. Blocked: SFTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SSH, SCP, HTTPS
D. Blocked: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, NetBIOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The question states that traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139 is blocked, while ports 22 and 443 are allowed.
Port 21 is used for FTP by default.
Port 69 is used for TFTP.
Port 80 is used for HTTP.
Ports 137-139 are used for NetBIOS.
VMM uses SFTP over default port 22.
Port 22 is used for SSH by default.
SCP runs over TCP port 22 by default.
Port 443 is used for HTTPS.
Q363. The security team would like to gather intelligence about the types of attacks being launched against the organization. Which of the following would provide them with the MOST information?
A. Implement a honeynet
B. Perform a penetration test
C. Examine firewall logs
D. Deploy an IDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q364. A customer has provided an email address and password to a website as part of the login process. Which of the following BEST describes the email address?
A. Identification
B. Authorization
C. Access control
D. Authentication
Answer: A
Q365. An employee recently lost a USB drive containing confidential customer data. Which of the following controls could be utilized to minimize the risk involved with the use of USB drives?
A. DLP
B. Asset tracking
C. HSM
D. Access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.
Q366. A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?
A. Application hardening
B. Application change management
C. Application patch management
D. Application firewall review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question states that operating system updates are applied but not other software updates. The ‘other software’ in this case would be applications. Software updates includes functionality updates and more importantly security updates. The process of applying software updates or ‘patches’ to applications is known as ‘application patch management’. Application patch management is an effective way of mitigating security risks associated with software applications.
Q367. During an audit, the security administrator discovers that there are several users that are no longer employed with the company but still have active user accounts. Which of the following should be performed?
A. Account recovery
B. Account disablement
C. Account lockouts
D. Account expiration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Account Disablement should be implemented when a user will be gone from a company whether they leave temporary or permanently. In the case of permanently leaving the company the account should be disabled. Disablement means that the account will no longer be an active account.
Q368. A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company’s new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked "Internal Proprietary Information". Which of the following should the user do NEXT?
A. Contact their manager and request guidance on how to best move forward
B. Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps
C. Provide the requestor with the email information since it will be released soon anyway
D. Reply back to the requestor to gain their contact information and call them
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an incident that has to be responded to by the person who discovered it- in this case the user. An incident is any attempt to violate a security policy, a successful penetration, a compromise of a system, or any unauthorized access to information. It’s important that an incident response policy establish at least the following items: Outside agencies that should be contacted or notified in case of an incident Resources used to deal with an incident Procedures to gather and secure evidence List of information that should be collected about an incident Outside experts who can be used to address issues if needed Policies and guidelines regarding how to handle an incident
Since the spec sheet has been marked Internal Proprietary Information the user should refer the incident to the incident response team.
Q369. A systems administrator has implemented PKI on a classified government network. In the event that a disconnect occurs from the primary CA, which of the following should be accessible locally from every site to ensure users with bad certificates cannot gain access to the network?
A. A CRL
B. Make the RA available
C. A verification authority
D. A redundant CA
Answer: A
Explanation:
A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or
key.
By checking the CRL you can check if a particular certificate has been revoked.
Q370. Which of the following is used by the recipient of a digitally signed email to verify the identity of the sender?
A. Recipient’s private key
B. Sender’s public key
C. Recipient’s public key
D. Sender’s private key
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the sender wants to send a message to the receiver. It’s important that this message not be altered. The sender uses the private key to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. The sender then sends the message to the receiver. The recipient uses the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, the receiver knows the message is authentic. Thus the recipient uses the sender’s public key to verify the sender’s identity.