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Q21. Which tool is used to set up DFS target shares coming from a ZFS Storage Appliance? 

A. File Server Management Console from a Windows 2003R2 server with the File Server Role enabled 

B. Computer Management Console from a Windows 2003R2 server with the Domain Controller Role enabled 

C. ZFS Storage Appliance Command-Line Interface 

D. ZFS Storage Appliance Web Console 

Answer:


Q22. Which is a definite performance issue for clients of the ZFS storage appliance? 

A. high I/O latency 

B. low I/O latency 

C. high disk throughput 

D. low disk throughput 

E. high CPU percent utilization 

Answer:


Q23. A storage administrator is configuring replication for a share. Identify the two required fields that must be specified. 

A. The target system 

B. The target storage pool 

C. The compression ratio 

D. A replication group 

E. Maximum Bandwidth 

Answer: A,B 


Q24. A storage administrator wants to bind the ZFS storage ZS3 to the existing LDAP server. What is required in order for this to happen? 

A. A self-signed Certificate 

B. A Base Search DN (Distinguished Name) 

C. An LDAP Proxy Server 

D. A password for an LDAP Proxy Server 

Answer:


Q25. Which three statements are correct about Cluster Configuration of ZFS Storage Appliances? 

A. To utilize resource of both nodes simultaneously, you need at least two storage pools: one that maps to node1 and another that maps to node2. 

B. Clusters can be configured in two ways: Active-Active or Active-Passive. 

C. Only one controller in a Cluster can be assigned resources. 

D. You can assign networking and storage pool to a controller in a cluster. 

E. In Cluster environment, both nodes can be owner of each storage pool. 

Answer: B,C,E 


Q26. Which interface port is typically used to conduct the initial system configuration? 

A. NET MGT 

B. SER MGT 

C. Data port 

D. TCP/IP port 

Answer:

Explanation: To perform the initial configuration using an Ethernet connection, connect an Ethernet cable from the NET MGT port on the back panel of the controller to your network. http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28223_01/html/E27586/power.html 


Q27. What is the effect of a snapshot rollback on a clone? 

A. There is no effect. 

B. Performance may be impacted during the snapshot rollback because the system restores the original blocks of the share. 

C. The clone may disappear if the snapshot being rolled back was taken prior to the clone's original snapshot. 

D. If the clone was promoted prior to the snapshot rollback, no impact will be noticed. 

Answer:


Q28. A storage administrator plans to replicate new data from primary ZFS storage to the secondary ZFS storage. 

Where should the administrator check to verify the current status of a replication? 

A. Configuration > Services > Remote Replication 

B. Shares > edit selected Share > Replication 

C. Shares > Project > edit selected Project > Replication 

D. Maintenance > Logs > Alerts 

Answer:


Q29. Identify two options that can be selected when customizing the Status Dashboard performance graphs. 

A. CPU - utilization 

B. NFSv4 - ops/sec 

C. Power - Avg. Consumption 

D. CPU - Average Wait I/O Time 

E. ZFS - ops/sec 

Answer: B,D 


Q30. What does the term "datalink" refer to when setting up the network configuration on a ZFS Storage Appliance? 

A. IP partitions 

B. Configuring IP addresses 

C. Managing devices utilized by interfaces 

D. Connecting a target to a LUN 

E. Linking multiple IP addresses to sources 

Answer: