Exam Code: 1Z0-574 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials
Certification Provider: Oracle
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2016 May 1Z0-574 Study Guide Questions:

Q21. Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)? 

A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated into the architecture. 

B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles. 

C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based. 

D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be followed. 

E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented architecture. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The purpose of ORA is to provide a reference architecture for designing, building, and integrating solutions based on modern technology from Oracle and other vendors. The reference architecture offers architecture principles and guidance based on recommendations from Oracle product development architects and field experts. Information provided by ORA gives architects an understanding of how to design solutions for the Oracle environment and best leverage its capabilities. 

Note:Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) defines a detailed and consistent architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on Oracle technologies. The reference architecture offers architecture principles and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services. 

Reference: IT Strategies from Oracle, An Overview, Release 3.0 


Q22. Which of the following are architecture principles that pertain to the management and monitoring framework? 

A. focus on individual resources 

B. service aware 

C. standards-based integration 

D. manual governance processes 

E. discoverable 

Answer: B,C,E 

Explanation: The following list is a sample architecture principles that pertain to the management and monitoring framework. 

* Service Aware (B) 

Treat a Service as a super infrastructure component. As more and more enterprises utilize Services as a means to build and compose business solutions it has become critical that IT operations have a comprehensive approach to managing and monitoring these Services. 

 Standards-based Integration (C) Standards based approach to integration to interact with internal and external IT operational systems. Standards-based integration improves the ability to interoperate with existing but also future and unknown IT operational systems. This facilitates the ability to manage and monitor the IT environment holistically as well as minimizing the cost of maintaining the integrations. *Discoverable (E) Discovery of deployed services and infrastructure components. Services and infrastructure components have become more dependent on one another, with many of these interdependencies crossing corporate boundaries. Without access to information concerning these dynamic interdependencies diagnosing problems and correlating problems in a complex, distributed environment is a huge challenge. Identifying and understanding dependencies manually is cost prohibitive, and breaks down with rising complexity and a rapid rate of change. 

Note: 

Other architecture principles that apply here as well: 

*Compliant 

* Proactive 

* Externalize Management 

* Manage and Monitor as One 

* Extensible 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Management and Monitoring, Release 3.0 


Q23. Which of the following statements are true about perimeter security? 

A. Though it is often associated with network security, it also applies to physical security measures as fences and locked doors. 

B. It is most effective when there is only one perimeter. For example, when inner perimetersare established, they reduce the effectiveness of outer perimeters. 

C. The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is the most protected zone of the network, which should be reserved for only the most sensitive data. 

D. Connections should not be permitted to span more than one perimeter or firewall. 

E. Perimeter security can be a component of a defense-in-depth strategy. 

F. Perimeter security is most effective for protection against insider threats. 

Answer: A,D,E 


Explanation: A: Your inner perimeter consists of the doors, windows and walls of your building(s). 

Protecting your inner perimeter is usually accomplished with locks, keys and alarm systems. 

D: E: Defense in depth is a security strategy in which multiple, independent, and mutually reinforcing security controls are leveraged to secure an IT environment. Defense in depth should be applied so that a combination of firewalls, intrusion detection and prevention, user management, authentication, authorization, and encryption mechanisms are employed across tiers and network zones. Defense in depth is compatible with perimeter security in that network perimeters (or more generically, protection zones) can make up part of the defense in depth strategy. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1 


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Q24. Which of the following are the implications of the architecture principle, "Asset-centric approach must be applied to engineering processes"? 

A. The development Infrastructure must support asset-centric engineering. 

B. Assets must be associated with meaningful metadata that can be used to discover and interpret the assets. 

C. Solutions developed must beintegrated and tested early and often. 

D. Existing assets must be reused to fulfill whole or part functionality when available. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don't maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0 


Q25. Which caching mode does every write to the cache cause a synchronous write to the back-end store? 

A. Refresh-Ahead Cache 

B. Write-Through Cache 

C. Write-Behind Cache 

D. Read-Through Cache 

Answer: B 

Explanation: In a write-through cache, every write to the cache causes a synchronous write to the backend store. 

In this approach, the data is updated in the backend data store, then the primary cache, all within the scope of the transaction. 

Then the backup cache is also updated to maintain consistency of data. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0 


Q26. Which statement best describes the role of the Data Movement Layer within the logical view of the Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture? 

A. The Data Movement Layer provides access to persistent data storage for the architecture. 

B. All write operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer. 

C. All read operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer. 

D. All create, read, update, and delete operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer. 

E. The Data Movement Layer provides batch and bulk data operations for the architecture. 

Answer: E 

Explanation: The Data Movement Layer provides the batch and bulk data handling for the architecture. This layer exists primarily to offload bulk data movement from the upper layers in the architecture. Bulk data movement is a necessary evil in many enterprises, and therefore, the architecture must provide a mechanism to provide this capability in an efficient, controlled manner. Without this layer, the other layers in the architecture might be misused to move large blocks of data, a task for which the other layers are ill suited. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0 


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Q27. Much as in modular programming, there are two ways that federation applies to user interface design: as either consumer or producer of federated Interface elements. 

Which statement is true? 

A. As a consumer, the end user is responsible for incorporating existing Interface elements into the user interface. 

B. As a consumer, the device is responsible for incorporating existing Interface elements into the user interface. 

C. As a consumer, the developer is responsible for incorporating existing Interface elements into the user interface. 

D. As a producer, the developer is responsible for building separate and independent interface elements that can be incorporated into another user interface. 

E. As a producer, the developer is responsible for incorporating existing interface elements into the user interface. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: As a consumer the developer is responsible for incorporating existing interface elements into the user interface. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, User Interaction, Release 3.0 


Q28. The sequence diagram (attached) maps to the Model-View Controller (MVC) development pattern. Which statement best describes how the sequence diagram maps to the MVC development pattern? 

A. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to Controller, View, Model. 

B. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to View, Controller, Model. 

C. The Controller and View appear in the first process block (starting from the left of the diagram) while the Model spans the next two blocks (incorporating service Invocation and database). 

D. The sequence diagram does not map to MVC. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The controller receives input from the user and makes the corresponding calls on model elements. The response to the user input is displayed via the view elements. 

A single user input may result in changes to none, one, or many view elements. 

The view renders data from the model into a suitable interface element. Multiple different views may exist for a single model element. Each view element is designed to support a particular end user need; whereas the model elements are shared by all users of the system. 

The model manages the behavior and data for the system. The model responds to requests for information about its state from the view, and responds to instructions from the controller to change state or execute behavior. The model may also notify the view when information changes so that the view can update the effected interface elements. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, User Interaction, Release 3.0 


Q29. Which of the following statements are true about asymmetric key encryption? 

A. It uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, that are unique and mathematically linked. 

B. It uses one key that is shared by both parties in the data exchange. 

C. It is faster than symmetric key encryption. 

D. It can be used in conjunction with symmetric key encryption in order to securely share a common encryption key. 

E. It can be used to produce and verify digital signatures. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: A:Public (asymmetric) key encryption uses a pair of keys, one private and one public. 

The public key is freely distributed to any party that may wish to send encrypted data. 

Once encrypted, data can only be decrypted with the private key. Therefore the private key is maintained by the receiving party and is not shared with anyone else. 

The two keys are mathematically related, but can't be used to discover each other. 

D: A combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption is often used. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1 


Q30. Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction? 

A. Personalization 

B. Communication services 

C. State management 

D. Customization 

E. Collaboration 

F. Syndication 

G. Controller 

H. Rendering 

Answer: B,C,G,H 

Explanation: The Client Tier is hosted on the display device. As mentioned above, this may be a browser or an thick client specific to the display device. 

Regardless of the choice for the Client Tier, there are standard capabilities provided by 

this tier in the architecture: 

Controller: The Controller accepts input from the user and performs actions based on that input. 

State Management: The State Management component is responsible for maintaining the current 

state of the user interface. 

Rendering: The Rendering component is responsible for delivering a view of the interface suitable 

for the end user. 

Communication Services: The Communication Services provide the means to access Service Tier 

capabilities. 

Note: Security Container, Data Management and Composition can also be included here. 

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, User Interaction, Release 3.0