The Most Recent Guide To 220-1102 Samples

NEW QUESTION 1
A new service desk is having a difficult time managing the volume of requests. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the department?

• A. Implementing a support portal
• B. Creating a ticketing system
• C. Commissioning an automated callback system
• D. Submitting tickets through email

Answer: A

Explanation:
A support portal is an online system that allows customers to access customer service tools, submit requests and view status updates, as well as access information such as how-to guides, FAQs, and other self-service resources. This would be the best solution for the service desk, as it would allow them to easily manage the volume of requests by allowing customers to submit their own requests and view the status of their requests. Additionally, the portal would provide customers with self-service resources that can help them resolve their own issues, reducing the amount of tickets that need to be handled by the service desk.

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician is upgrading the backup system for documents at a high-volume law firm. The current backup system can retain no more than three versions of full backups before failing. The law firm is not concerned about restore times but asks the technician to retain more versions when possible. Which of the following backup methods should the technician MOST likely implement?

• A. Full
• B. Mirror
• C. Incremental
• D. Differential

Answer: C

Explanation:
Incremental backup is a backup method that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Incremental backup can save storage space and bandwidth, as it does not copy the same files over and over again. Incremental backup can also retain more versions of backups, as it only stores the changes made to the files. However, incremental backup can have longer restore times, as it requires restoring the last full backup and all the subsequent incremental backups in order to recover the data. The law firm is not concerned about restore times but asks the technician to retain more versions when possible, so incremental backup would be a suitable choice for them.

NEW QUESTION 3
A user contacts the help desk to request assistance with a program feature. The user is in a different building but on the same network as the help desk technician. Which of the following should the technician use to assist the user?

• A. AAA
• B. SSH
• C. RDP
• D. VPN

Answer: C

Explanation:
RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol and it is a protocol that allows a user to remotely access and control another computer over a network. A technician can use RDP to assist a user who is in a different building but on the same network by connecting to the user’s computer and viewing their screen, keyboard, and mouse. AAA, SSH, and VPN are not protocols that can be used to assist a user with a program feature.

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following is used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation?

• A. Scope change
• B. End-user acceptance
• C. Risk analysis
• D. Rollback plan

Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk analysis is used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation. Risk analysis is a process of identifying, assessing and prioritizing potential risks that may affect a project or an activity. Risk analysis can help determine the likelihood and impact of various issues that may arise during a change implementation, such as technical errors, compatibility problems, security breaches, performance degradation or user dissatisfaction. Risk analysis can also help plan and prepare for mitigating or avoiding these issues. Scope change is a modification of the original goals, requirements or deliverables of a project or an activity. Scope change is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to reflect changes in expectations or needs of the stakeholders. End- user acceptance is a measure of how well the users are satisfied with and adopt a new system or service. End-user acceptance is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to evaluate the success and effectiveness of the change. Rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to restore a system or service to its previous state in case of a failed or problematic change implementation. Rollback plan is not used to explain issues that may occur during a change implementation but to recover from them. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.2

NEW QUESTION 5
A user's Windows computer seems to work well at the beginning of the day. However, its performance degrades throughout the day, and the system freezes when several applications are open. Which of the following should a technician do to resolve the issue? (Select two).

• A. Install the latest GPU drivers.
• B. Reinstall the OS.
• C. Increase the RAM.
• D. Increase the hard drive space.
• E. Uninstall unnecessary software.
• F. Disable scheduled tasks.

Answer: CE

Explanation:
The most likely causes of the user’s Windows computer performance degradation and freezing are insufficient RAM and excessive software running in the background. Therefore, the technician should do the following to resolve the issue:
✑ Increase the RAM. RAM is the memory that the computer uses to store and run applications and processes. If the RAM is not enough to handle the workload, the computer will use the hard drive as a virtual memory, which is much slower and can cause performance issues. Increasing the RAM will allow the computer to run more applications and processes smoothly and avoid freezing. The technician should check the system requirements of the applications that the user needs to run, and install additional RAM modules that are compatible with the motherboard and the existing RAM. The technician should also make sure that the system is managing the page file size automatically, or adjust it manually to optimize the virtual memory usage12.
✑ Uninstall unnecessary software. Software that the user does not need or use can take up valuable disk space and system resources, and can interfere with theperformance of other applications. Some software may also run in the background or start automatically when the computer boots up, which can slow down the system and cause freezing. The technician should help the user to identify and uninstall unnecessary software from the control panel or the settings app, and disable unnecessary startup programs from the task manager or the system configuration tool. The technician should also check for and remove viruses and malware that may affect the system performance134.
References:
1: Tips to improve PC performance in Windows - Microsoft Support1 2: How to Upgrade or Install RAM on Your Windows PC - Lifewire5 3: How to Uninstall Programs on Windows 10
- PCMag6 4: How to Fix a Windows Computer that Hangs or Freezes - wikiHow

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a proprietary Cisco AAA protocol?

• A. TKIP
• B. AES
• C. RADIUS
• D. TACACS+

Answer: D

Explanation:
TACACS+ is a proprietary Cisco AAA protocol

NEW QUESTION 7
A user notices a small USB drive is attached to the user's computer after a new vendor visited the office. The technician notices two files named grabber.exe and output.txt. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely occurring?

• A. Trojan
• B. Rootkit
• C. Cryptominer
• D. Keylogger

Answer: D

Explanation:
A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of a user and sends them to a remote attacker. A keylogger can be used to steal passwords, credit card numbers, personal information, and other sensitive data. A keylogger can be delivered through a USB drive that contains a malicious executable file, such as grabber.exe, and an output file that stores the captured keystrokes, such as output.txt. The other options are not likely to use this method of attack. References: : https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-a-core-2-exam- objectives : https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/keylogger

NEW QUESTION 8
A user updates a mobile device's OS. A frequently used application becomes consistently unresponsive immediately after the device is launched. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the user perform FIRST?

• A. Delete the application's cache.
• B. Check for application updates.
• C. Roll back the OS update.
• D. Uninstall and reinstall the application.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sometimes, an OS update can cause compatibility issues with some applications that are not optimized for the new version of the OS. To fix this, the user should check if there are any updates available for the application that can resolve the issue. The user can check for application updates by following these steps:
✑ On an Android device, open the Google Play Store app and tap on the menu icon in the top left corner. Then tap on My apps & games and look for any updates available for the application. If there is an update, tap on Update to install it.
✑ On an iOS device, open the App Store app and tap on the Updates tab at the bottom. Then look for any updates available for the application. If there is an update, tap on Update to install it.

NEW QUESTION 9
A user has a computer with Windows 10 Home installed and purchased a Windows 10 Pro license. The user is not sure how to upgrade the OS. Which of the following should the technician do to apply this license?

• A. Copy the c:\Wlndows\wlndows.lie file over to the machine and restart.
• B. Redeem the included activation key card for a product key.
• C. Insert a Windows USB hardware dongle and initiate activation.
• D. Activate with the digital license included with the device hardware.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Redeeming the included activation key card for a product key is the correct way to apply a Windows 10 Pro license to a computer that has Windows 10 Home installed. The activation key card is a physical or digital card that contains a 25-digit code that can be used to activate Windows 10 Pro online or by phone. Copying the windows.lie file, inserting a Windows USB hardware dongle and activating with the digital license are not valid methods of applying a Windows 10 Pro license. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-upgrade-windows-10-home-to-pro https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 10
An organization's Chief Financial Officer (CFO) is concerned about losing access to very sensitive, legacy unmaintained PII on a workstation if a ransomware outbreak occurs. The CFO has a regulatory requirement to retain this data for many years. Which of the following backup methods would BEST meet the requirements?

• A. A daily, incremental backup that is saved to the corporate file server
• B. An additional, secondary hard drive in a mirrored RAID configuration
• C. A full backup of the data that is stored of site in cold storage
• D. Weekly, differential backups that are stored in a cloud-hosting provider

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to CompTIA A+ Core 2 objectives, a full backup stored off-site provides the greatest protection against data loss in the event of a ransomware attack or other data disaster. By storing the backup in a separate physical location, it is less likely to be affected by the same event that could cause data loss on the original system. Cold storage is a term used for data archiving, which typically refers to a long-term storage solution that is used for retaining data that is infrequently accessed, but still needs to be kept for regulatory or compliance reasons.

NEW QUESTION 11
An organization implemented a method of wireless security that requires both a user and the user's computer to be in specific managed groups on the server in order to connect to Wi-Fi. Which of the following wireless security methods BEST describes what this organization implemented?

• A. TKIP
• B. RADIUS
• C. WPA2
• D. AES

Answer: B

Explanation:
RADIUS stands for Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service and it is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. RADIUS can be used to implement a method of wireless security that requires both a user and the user’s computer to be in specific managed groups on the server in order to connect to Wi-Fi. This is also known as 802.1X authentication or EAP-TLS authentication

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes when to use the YUM command in Linux?

• A. To add functionality
• B. To change folder permissions
• C. To show documentation
• D. To list file contents

Answer: A

Explanation:
YUM stands for Yellowdog Updater Modified and it is a command-line tool that allows users to install, update, remove, and manage software packages in Linux. YUM can be used to add functionality to a Linux system by installing new software packages or updating existing ones. To change folder permissions, show documentation, or list file contents, other commands such as chmod, man, or ls can be used in Linux.

NEW QUESTION 13
A large university wants to equip all classrooms with high-definition IP videoconferencing equipment. Which of the following would most likely be impacted in this situation?

• A. SAN
• B. LAN
• C. GPU
• D. PAN

Answer: B

Explanation:
LAN is the most likely option to be impacted in this situation. LAN stands for Local Area Network, and it is a network that connects devices within a limited area, such as a building or a campus. Installing high-definition IP videoconferencing equipment in all classrooms would require a high bandwidth and reliable LAN infrastructure to support the video and audio transmission. The LAN would also need to be configured with proper security, quality of service, and multicast protocols to ensure the optimal performance of the videoconferencing system. SAN, GPU, and PAN are not directly related to this scenario. SAN stands for Storage Area Network, and it is a network that provides access to consolidated storage devices. GPU stands for Graphics Processing Unit, and it is a hardware component that handles graphics rendering and computation. PAN stands for Personal Area Network, and it is a network that connects devices within a short range, such as Bluetooth or infrared. References:
✑ Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 20
✑ CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 104

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following operating systems is considered closed source?

• A. Ubuntu
• B. Android
• C. CentOS
• D. OSX

Answer: D

Explanation:
OSX (now macOS) is an operating system that is considered closed source, meaning that its source code is not publicly available or modifiable by anyone except its
developers. It is owned and maintained by Apple Inc. Ubuntu, Android and CentOS are operating systems that are considered open source, meaning that their source code is publicly available and modifiable by anyone who wants to contribute or customize them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/open-source-vs-closed-source-software https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 15
A technician is installing new network equipment in a SOHO and wants to ensure the equipment is secured against external threats on the Internet. Which of the following actions should the technician do FIRST?

• A. Lock all devices in a closet.
• B. Ensure all devices are from the same manufacturer.
• C. Change the default administrative password.
• D. Install the latest operating system and patches

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technician should change the default administrative password FIRST to ensure the network equipment is secured against external threats on the Internet. Changing the default administrative password is a basic security measure that can help prevent unauthorized access to the network equipment. Locking all devices in a closet is a physical security measure that can help prevent theft or damage to the devices, but it does not address external threats on the Internet. Ensuring all devices are from the same manufacturer is not a security measure and does not address external threats on the Internet. Installing the latest operating system and patches is important for maintaining the security of the network equipment, but it is not the first action the technician should take1

NEW QUESTION 16
A technician discovers user input has been captured by a malicious actor. Which of the following malware types is MOST likely being used?

• A. Cryptominers
• B. Rootkit
• C. Spear phishing
• D. Keylogger

Answer: D

Explanation:
A keylogger is a type of malware that captures user input, such as keystrokes, mouse clicks, and clipboard data, and sends it to a malicious actor. Keyloggers can be used to steal passwords, credit card numbers, personal information, and other sensitive data.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 Exam Objectives, Section 5.1

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following protocols supports fast roaming between networks?

• A. WEP
• B. WPA
• C. WPA2
• D. LEAP
• E. PEAP

Answer: B

Explanation:
WPA2 is the only protocol among the options that supports fast roaming between
networks. Fast roaming, also known as IEEE 802.11r or Fast BSS Transition (FT), enables a client device to roam quickly in environments implementing WPA2 Enterprise security, by ensuring that the client device does not need to re-authenticate to the RADIUS server
every time it roams from one access point to another1. WEP, WPA, LEAP, and PEAP do not support fast roaming and require the client device to perform the full authentication process every time it roams, which can cause delays and interruptions in the network service.
References:
✑ The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide2, page 263.
✑ WiFi Fast Roaming, Simplified3

NEW QUESTION 18
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