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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following is the best reason for the use of an automated risk analysis tool?

  • A. Much of the data gathered during the review cannot be reused for subsequent analysis.
  • B. Automated methodologies require minimal training and knowledge of risk analysis.
  • C. Most software tools have user interfaces that are easy to use and does not require any training.
  • D. Information gathering would be minimized and expedited due to the amount of information already built into the tool.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The use of tools simplifies this process. Not only do they usually have a database of assests, threats, and vulnerabilities but they also speed up the entire process.
Using Automated tools for performing a risk assessment can reduce the time it takes to perform them and can simplify the process as well. The better types of these tools include a well-researched threat population and associated statistics. Using one of these tools virtually ensures that no relevant threat is overlooked, and associated risks are accepted as a consequence of the threat being overlooked.
In most situations, the assessor will turn to the use of a variety of automated tools to assist in the vulnerability assessment process. These tools contain extensive databases of specific known vulnerabilities as well as the ability to analyze system and network configuration information to predict where a particular system might be vulnerable to different types of attacks. There are many different types of tools currently available to address a wide variety of vulnerability assessment needs. Some tools will examine a system from the viewpoint of the network, seeking to determine if a system can be compromised by a remote attacker exploiting available services on a particular host system. These tools will test for open ports listening for connections, known vulnerabilities in common services, and known operating system exploits.
Michael Gregg says:
Automated tools are available that minimize the effort of the manual process. These programs enable users to rerun the analysis with different parameters to answer "what-ifs." They perform calculations quickly and can be used to estimate future expected losses easier than performing the calculations manually.
Shon Harris in her latest book says:
The gathered data can be reused, greatly reducing the time required to perform subsequent analyses. The risk analysis team can also print reports and comprehensive
graphs to present to management.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4655-4661). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
CISSP Exam Cram 2 by Michael Gregg and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 2333-2335). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
The following answers are incorrect:
Much of the data gathered during the review cannot be reused for subsequent analysis. Is incorrect because the data can be reused for later analysis.
Automated methodologies require minimal training and knowledge of risk analysis. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While a minimal amount of training and knowledge is needed, the analysis should still be performed by skilled professionals.
Most software tools have user interfaces that are easy to use and does not require any training. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While many of the user interfaces are easy to use it is better if the tool already has information built into it. There is always a training curve when any product is being used for the first time.

NEW QUESTION 2

A network-based vulnerability assessment is a type of test also referred to as:

  • A. An active vulnerability assessment.
  • B. A routing vulnerability assessment.
  • C. A host-based vulnerability assessment.
  • D. A passive vulnerability assessment.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A network-based vulnerability assessment tool/system either re-enacts system attacks, noting and recording responses to the attacks, or probes different targets to infer weaknesses from their responses.
Since the assessment is actively attacking or scanning targeted systems, network-based vulnerability assessment systems are also called active vulnerability systems.
There are mostly two main types of test:
PASSIVE: You don't send any packet or interact with the remote target. You make use of public database and other techniques to gather information about your target.
ACTIVE: You do send packets to your target, you attempt to stimulate response which will help you in gathering information about hosts that are alive, services runnings, port state, and more.
See example below of both types of attacks:
Eavesdropping and sniffing data as it passes over a network are considered passive attacks because the attacker is not affecting the protocol, algorithm, key, message, or any parts of the encryption system. Passive attacks are hard to detect, so in most cases methods are put in place to try to prevent them rather than to detect and stop them.
Altering messages , modifying system files, and masquerading as another individual are acts that are considered active attacks because the attacker is actually doing something instead of sitting back and gathering data. Passive attacks are usually used to gain information prior to carrying out an active attack.
IMPORTANT NOTE:
On the commercial vendors will sometimes use different names for different types of scans. However, the exam is product agnostic. They do not use vendor terms but general terms. Experience could trick you into selecting the wrong choice sometimes. See feedback from Jason below:
"I am a system security analyst. It is my daily duty to perform system vulnerability analysis. We use Nessus and Retina (among other tools) to perform our network based vulnerability scanning. Both commercially available tools refer to a network based vulnerability scan as a "credentialed" scan. Without credentials, the scan tool cannot login to the system being scanned, and as such will only receive a port scan to see what ports are open and exploitable"
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 865). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
DUPUIS, Clement, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, march 2002 (page 97).

NEW QUESTION 3

What is the greatest danger from DHCP?

  • A. An intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients.
  • B. Having multiple clients on the same LAN having the same IP address.
  • C. Having the wrong router used as the default gateway.
  • D. Having the organization's mail server unreachable.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The greatest danger from BootP or DHCP (Dynamic Host Control Protocol) is from an intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients. Other choices are possible consequences of DHCP impersonation.
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 4: Sockets and Services from a Security Viewpoint.

NEW QUESTION 4

If your property Insurance has Replacement Cost Valuation (RCV) clause your damaged property will be compensated:

  • A. Based on the value of item on the date of loss
  • B. Based on new, comparable, or identical item for old regardless of condition of lost item
  • C. Based on value of item one month before the loss
  • D. Based on the value listed on the Ebay auction web site

Answer: B

Explanation:
RCV is the maximum amount your insurance company will pay you for damage to covered property before deducting for depreciation. The RCV payment is based on the current cost to replace your property with new, identical or comparable property.
The other choices were detractor:
Application and definition of the insurance terms Replacement Cost Value (RCV), Actual Cash Value (ACV) and depreciation can be confusing. It??s important that you understand the terms to help settle your claim fairly.
An easy way to understand RCV and ACV is to think in terms of ??new?? and ??used.?? Replacement cost is the item's current price, new. ??What will it cost when I replace it??? Actual cash is the item's used price, old. ??How much money is it worth since I used it for five years???
Hold Back
Most policies only pay the Actual Cash Value upfront, and then they pay you the ??held back?? depreciation after you incur the expense to repair or replace your personal property items.
NOTE: You must remember to send documentation to the insurance company proving you??ve incurred the additional expense you will be reimbursed.
Actual Cash Value (ACV)
ACV is the amount your insurance company will pay you for damage to covered property after deducting for depreciation. ACV is the replacement cost of a new item, minus depreciation. If stated as a simple equation, ACV could be defined as follows: ACV=RCV- Depreciation
Unfortunately, ACV is not always as easy to agree upon as a simple math equation. The ACV can also be calculated as the price a willing buyer would pay for your used item.
Depreciation
Depreciation (sometimes called ??hold back??) is defined as the ??loss in value from all causes, including age, and wear and tear.?? Although the definition seems to be clear, in our experience, value?? as a real-world application is clearly subjective and varies widely. We have seen the same adjuster apply NO depreciation (100 percent value) on one claim and 40 percent depreciation almost half value) on an almost identical claim.
This shows that the process of applying depreciation is subjective and clearly negotiable. Excessive Depreciation
When the insurance company depreciates more than they should, it is called ??Excessive
depreciation.?? Although not ethical, it is very common. Note any items that have excessive depreciation and write a letter to your insurance company.
References:
http://carehelp.org/downloads/category/1-insurance- handouts.html?download=17%3Ahandout08-rcv-and-acv and http://www.schirickinsurance.com/resources/value2005.pdf and
TIPTON, Harold F. & KRAUSE, MICKI, information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1
Property Insurance overview, Page 587.

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following countermeasures would be the most appropriate to prevent possible intrusion or damage from wardialing attacks?

  • A. Monitoring and auditing for such activity
  • B. Require user authentication
  • C. Making sure only necessary phone numbers are made public
  • D. Using completely different numbers for voice and data accesses

Answer: B

Explanation:
Knowlege of modem numbers is a poor access control method as an attacker can discover modem numbers by dialing all numbers in a range. Requiring user authentication before remote access is granted will help in avoiding unauthorized access over a modem line.
"Monitoring and auditing for such activity" is incorrect. While monitoring and auditing can assist in detecting a wardialing attack, they do not defend against a successful wardialing attack.
"Making sure that only necessary phone numbers are made public" is incorrect. Since a wardialing attack blindly calls all numbers in a range, whether certain numbers in the range are public or not is irrelevant.
"Using completely different numbers for voice and data accesses" is incorrect. Using different number ranges for voice and data access might help prevent an attacker from stumbling across the data lines while wardialing the public voice number range but this is not an adequate countermeaure.
References: CBK, p. 214
AIO3, p. 534-535

NEW QUESTION 6

What enables a workstation to boot without requiring a hard or floppy disk drive?

  • A. Bootstrap Protocol (BootP).
  • B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
  • C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
  • D. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR).

Answer: A

Explanation:
Bootstrap Protocol (BootP) is an Internet Layer protocol that enables a workstation to boot without requiring a hard or floppy disk drive. Reverse Address
Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a TCP/IP protocol that permits a physical address, such as an Ethernet address, to be translated into an IP address. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a TCP/IP protocol that permits an IP address to be translated into a physical address. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a new IP addressing scheme.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 88.

NEW QUESTION 7

Qualitative loss resulting from the business interruption does NOT usually include:

  • A. Loss of revenue
  • B. Loss of competitive advantage or market share
  • C. Loss of public confidence and credibility
  • D. Loss of market leadership

Answer: A

Explanation:
This question is testing your ability to evaluate whether items on the list are Qualitative or Quantitative. All of the items listed were Qualitative except Lost of Revenue which is Quantitative.
Those are mainly two approaches to risk analysis, see a description of each below:
A quantitative risk analysis is used to assign monetary and numeric values to all elements of the risk analysis process. Each element within the analysis (asset value, threat frequency, severity of vulnerability, impact damage, safeguard costs, safeguard effectiveness, uncertainty, and probability items) is quantified and entered into equations to determine total and residual risks. It is more of a scientific or mathematical approach to risk analysis compared to qualitative.
A qualitative risk analysis uses a ??softer?? approach to the data elements of a risk analysis . It does not quantify that data, which means that it does not assign numeric values to the data so that they can be used in equations.
Qualitative and quantitative impact information should be gathered and then properly analyzed and interpreted. The goal is to see exactly how a business will be affected by different threats.
The effects can be economical, operational, or both. Upon completion of the data analysis, it should be reviewed with the most knowledgeable people within the company to ensure that the findings are appropriate and that it describes the real risks and impacts the organization faces. This will help flush out any additional data points not originally obtained and will give a fuller understanding of all the possible business impacts.
Loss criteria must be applied to the individual threats that were identified. The criteria may include the following:
Loss in reputation and public confidence Loss of competitive advantages Increase in operational expenses Violations of contract agreements
Violations of legal and regulatory requirements
Delayed income costs Loss in revenue
Loss in productivity
Reference used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 909). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following would BEST be defined as an absence or weakness of safeguard that could be exploited?

  • A. A threat
  • B. A vulnerability
  • C. A risk
  • D. An exposure

Answer: B

Explanation:
It is a software , hardware or procedural weakness that may provide an attacker the open door he is looking for to enter a computer or network and have unauthorized access to resources within the environment. A vulnerability characterizes the absence or weakness of a safeguard that could be exploited. This vulnerability may be a service running on a server, unpatched applications or operating system software etc.
The following answers are incorrect because:
Threat: A threat is defined as a potential danger to information or systems. The threat is someone or something will identify a specific vulnerability and use it against the company or individual. The entity that takes advantage of a vulnerability is referred to as a 'Threat Agent'. A threat agent could be an intruder accessing the network through a port on the firewall , a process accessing data that violates the security policy.
Risk:A risk is the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability and the corresponding business impact. If a firewall has several ports open , there is a higher likelihood that an intruder will use one to access the network in an unauthorized method.
Exposure: An exposure is an instance of being exposed to losses from a threat agent. REFERENCES:
SHON HARRIS , ALL IN ONE THIRD EDITION : Chapter 3 : Security Management
Practices , Pages: 57-59

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following is NOT a type of motion detector?

  • A. Photoelectric sensor
  • B. Passive infrared sensors
  • C. Microwave Sensor.
  • D. Ultrasonic Sensor.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A photoelectric sensor does not "directly" sense motion there is a narrow beam that won't set off the sensor unless the beam is broken. Photoelectric sensors, along with dry contact switches, are a type of perimeter intrusion detector.
All of the other answers are valid types of motion detectors types.
The content below on the different types of sensors is from Wikepedia: Indoor Sensors
These types of sensors are designed for indoor use. Outdoor use would not be advised due to false alarm vulnerability and weather durability.Passive infrared detectors
SSCP dumps exhibit
C:\Users\MCS\Desktop\1.jpg Passive Infrared Sensor
The passive infrared detector (PIR) is one of the most common detectors found in household and small business environments because it offers affordable and reliable functionality. The term passive means the detector is able to function without the need to generate and radiate its own energy (unlike ultrasonic and microwave volumetric intrusion detectors that are ??active?? in operation). PIRs are able to distinguish if an infrared emitting object is present by first learning the ambient temperature of the monitored space and then detecting a change in the temperature caused by the presence of an object. Using the principle of differentiation, which is a check of presence or nonpresence, PIRs verify if an intruder or object is actually there. Creating individual zones of detection where each zone comprises one or more layers can achieve differentiation. Between the zones there are areas of no sensitivity (dead zones) that are used by the sensor for comparison.
Ultrasonic detectors
Using frequencies between 15 kHz and 75 kHz, these active detectors transmit ultrasonic sound waves that are inaudible to humans. The Doppler shift principle is the underlying method of operation, in which a change in frequency is detected due to object motion. This is caused when a moving object changes the frequency of sound waves around it. Two conditions must occur to successfully detect a Doppler shift event:
There must be motion of an object either towards or away from the receiver.
The motion of the object must cause a change in the ultrasonic frequency to the receiver relative to the transmitting frequency.
The ultrasonic detector operates by the transmitter emitting an ultrasonic signal into the area to be protected. The sound waves are reflected by solid objects (such as the surrounding floor, walls and ceiling) and then detected by the receiver. Because ultrasonic waves are transmitted through air, then hard-surfaced objects tend to reflect most of the ultrasonic energy, while soft surfaces tend to absorb most energy.
When the surfaces are stationary, the frequency of the waves detected by the receiver will be equal to the transmitted frequency. However, a change in frequency will occur as a result of the Doppler principle, when a person or object is moving towards or away from the detector. Such an event initiates an alarm signal. This technology is considered obsolete by many alarm professionals, and is not actively installed.
Microwave detectors
This device emits microwaves from a transmitter and detects any reflected microwaves or reduction in beam intensity using a receiver. The transmitter and receiver are usually combined inside a single housing (monostatic) for indoor applications, and separate housings (bistatic) for outdoor applications. To reduce false alarms this type of detector is usually combined with a passive infrared detector or "Dualtec" alarm.
Microwave detectors respond to a Doppler shift in the frequency of the reflected energy, by a phase shift, or by a sudden reduction of the level of received energy. Any of these effects may indicate motion of an intruder.
Photo-electric beams
Photoelectric beam systems detect the presence of an intruder by transmitting visible or infrared light beams across an area, where these beams may be obstructed. To improve the detection surface area, the beams are often employed in stacks of two or more. However, if an intruder is aware of the technology's presence, it can be avoided. The technology can be an effective long-range detection system, if installed in stacks of three or more where the transmitters and receivers are staggered to create a fence-like barrier. Systems are available for both internal and external applications. To prevent a clandestine attack using a secondary light source being used to hold the detector in a 'sealed' condition whilst an intruder passes through, most systems use and detect a modulated light source.
Glass break detectors
The glass break detector may be used for internal perimeter building protection. When glass breaks it generates sound in a wide band of frequencies. These can range from infrasonic, which is below 20 hertz (Hz) and can not be heard by the human ear, through the audio band from 20 Hz to 20 kHz which humans can hear, right up to ultrasonic, which is above 20 kHz and again cannot be heard. Glass break acoustic detectors are mounted in close proximity to the glass panes and listen for sound frequencies associated with glass breaking. Seismic glass break detectors are different in that they are installed on the glass pane. When glass breaks it produces specific shock frequencies which travel through the glass and often through the window frame and the surrounding walls and ceiling. Typically, the most intense frequencies generated are between 3 and 5 kHz, depending on the type of glass and the presence of a plastic interlayer. Seismic glass break detectors ??feel?? these shock frequencies and in turn generate an alarm condition.
The more primitive detection method involves gluing a thin strip of conducting foil on the inside of the glass and putting low-power electrical current through it. Breaking the glass is practically guaranteed to tear the foil and break the circuit.
Smoke, heat, and carbon monoxide detectors
SSCP dumps exhibit
C:\Users\MCS\Desktop\1.jpg Heat Detection System
Most systems may also be equipped with smoke, heat, and/or carbon monoxide detectors. These are also known as 24 hour zones (which are on at all times). Smoke detectors and heat detectors protect from the risk of fire and carbon monoxide detectors protect from the risk of carbon monoxide. Although an intruder alarm panel may also have these detectors connected, it may not meet all the local fire code requirements of a fire alarm system.
Other types of volumetric sensors could be:
Active Infrared
Passive Infrared/Microware combined Radar
Accoustical Sensor/Audio Vibration Sensor (seismic) Air Turbulence

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is not a physical control for physical security?

  • A. lighting
  • B. fences
  • C. training
  • D. facility construction materials

Answer: C

Explanation:
Some physical controls include fences, lights, locks, and facility construction materials. Some administrative controls include facility selection and construction, facility management, personnel controls, training, and emergency response and procedures.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 3rd. Ed., Chapter 6, page 403.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following devices enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit?

  • A. Router
  • B. Multiplexer
  • C. Channel service unit/Data service unit (CSU/DSU)
  • D. Wan switch

Answer: B

Explanation:
Multiplexers are devices that enable enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 118).

NEW QUESTION 12

In regards to information classification what is the main responsibility of information (data) owner?

  • A. determining the data sensitivity or classification level
  • B. running regular data backups
  • C. audit the data users
  • D. periodically check the validity and accuracy of the data

Answer: A

Explanation:
Making the determination to decide what level of classification the information requires is the main responsibility of the data owner.
The data owner within classification is a person from Management who has been entrusted with a data set that belong to the company. It could be for example the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) who has been entrusted with all financial date or it could be the Human Resource Director who has been entrusted with all Human Resource data. The information owner will decide what classification will be applied to the data based on Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, Criticality, and Sensitivity of the data.
The Custodian is the technical person who will implement the proper classification on objects in accordance with the Data Owner. The custodian DOES NOT decide what classification to apply, it is the Data Owner who will dictate to the Custodian what is the classification to apply.
NOTE:
The term Data Owner is also used within Discretionary Access Control (DAC). Within DAC it means the person who has created an object. For example, if I create a file on my system then I am the owner of the file and I can decide who else could get access to the file. It is left to my discretion. Within DAC access is granted based solely on the Identity of the subject, this is why sometimes DAC is referred to as Identity Based Access Control.
The other choices were not the best answer
Running regular backups is the responsibility of custodian. Audit the data users is the responsibility of the auditors
Periodically check the validity and accuracy of the data is not one of the data owner responsibility
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 14, Chapter 1: Security Management Practices.

NEW QUESTION 13

What is the PRIMARY use of a password?

  • A. Allow access to files.
  • B. Identify the user.
  • C. Authenticate the user.
  • D. Segregate various user's accesses.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which type of attack is based on the probability of two different messages using the same hash function producing a common message digest?

  • A. Differential cryptanalysis
  • B. Differential linear cryptanalysis
  • C. Birthday attack
  • D. Statistical attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
A Birthday attack is usually applied to the probability of two different messages using the same hash function producing a common message digest.
The term "birthday" comes from the fact that in a room with 23 people, the probability of two of more people having the same birthday is greater than 50%.
Linear cryptanalysis is a general form of cryptanalysis based on finding affine approximations to the action of a cipher. Attacks have been developed for block ciphers and stream ciphers. Linear cryptanalysis is one of the two most widely used attacks on block ciphers; the other being differential cryptanalysis.
Differential Cryptanalysis is a potent cryptanalytic technique introduced by Biham and Shamir. Differential cryptanalysis is designed for the study and attack of DES-like cryptosystems. A DES-like cryptosystem is an iterated cryptosystem which relies on conventional cryptographic techniques such as substitution and diffusion.
Differential cryptanalysis is a general form of cryptanalysis applicable primarily to block ciphers, but also to stream ciphers and cryptographic hash functions. In the broadest sense, it is the study of how differences in an input can affect the resultant difference at the output. In the case of a block cipher, it refers to a set of techniques for tracing differences through the network of transformations, discovering where the cipher exhibits non-random behaviour, and exploiting such properties to recover the secret key.
Source:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 163).
and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differential_cryptanalysis

NEW QUESTION 15

In non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

  • A. The societies role in the organization
  • B. The individual's role in the organization
  • C. The group-dynamics as they relate to the individual's role in the organization
  • D. The group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Non-Discretionary Access Control, when Role Based Access Control is being used, a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on the individual's role in the organization.
Reference(S) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 33.

NEW QUESTION 16

What key size is used by the Clipper Chip?

  • A. 40 bits
  • B. 56 bits
  • C. 64 bits
  • D. 80 bits

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Clipper Chip is a NSA designed tamperproof chip for encrypting data and it uses the SkipJack algorithm. Each Clipper Chip has a unique serial number and a copy of the unit key is stored in the database under this serial number. The sending Clipper Chip generates and sends a Law Enforcement Access Field (LEAF) value included in the transmitted message. It is based on a 80-bit key and a 16-bit checksum.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#5 Cryptography (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 1).

NEW QUESTION 17

The throughput rate is the rate at which individuals, once enrolled, can be processed and
identified or authenticated by a biometric system. Acceptable throughput rates are in the range of:

  • A. 100 subjects per minute.
  • B. 25 subjects per minute.
  • C. 10 subjects per minute.
  • D. 50 subjects per minute.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The throughput rate is the rate at which individuals, once enrolled, can be processed and identified or authenticated by a biometric system.
Acceptable throughput rates are in the range of 10 subjects per minute.
Things that may impact the throughput rate for some types of biometric systems may include:
A concern with retina scanning systems may be the exchange of body fluids on the eyepiece.
Another concern would be the retinal pattern that could reveal changes in a person's health, such as diabetes or high blood pressure.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 38.

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following is used to interrupt the opportunity to use or perform collusion to subvert operation for fraudulent purposes?

  • A. Key escrow
  • B. Rotation of duties
  • C. Principle of need-to-know
  • D. Principle of least privilege

Answer: B

Explanation:
Job rotations reduce the risk of collusion of activities between individuals. Companies with individuals working with sensitive information or systems where there might be the opportunity for personal gain through collusion can benefit by integrating job rotation with segregation of duties. Rotating the position may uncover activities that the individual is performing outside of the normal operating procedures, highlighting errors or fraudulent behavior.
Rotation of duties is a method of reducing the risk associated with a subject performing a
(sensitive) task by limiting the amount of time the subject is assigned to perform the task before being moved to a different task.
The following are incorrect answers:
Key escrow is related to the protection of keys in storage by splitting the key in pieces that will be controlled by different departments. Key escrow is the process of ensuring a third party maintains a copy of a private key or key needed to decrypt information. Key escrow also should be considered mandatory for most organization??s use of cryptography as encrypted information belongs to the organization and not the individual; however often an individual??s key is used to encrypt the information.
Separation of duties is a basic control that prevents or detects errors and irregularities by assigning responsibility for different parts of critical tasks to separate individuals, thus limiting the effect a single person can have on a system. One individual should not have the capability to execute all of the steps of a particular process. This is especially important in critical business areas, where individuals may have greater access and capability to modify, delete, or add data to the system. Failure to separate duties could result in individuals embezzling money from the company without the involvement of others.
The need-to-know principle specifies that a person must not only be cleared to access classified or other sensitive information, but have requirement for such information to carry out assigned job duties. Ordinary or limited user accounts are what most users are assigned. They should be restricted only to those privileges that are strictly required, following the principle of least privilege. Access should be limited to specific objects following the principle of need-to-know.
The principle of least privilege requires that each subject in a system be granted the most restrictive set of privileges (or lowest clearance) needed for the performance of authorized tasks. Least privilege refers to granting users only the accesses that are required to perform their job functions. Some employees will require greater access than others based upon their job functions. For example, an individual performing data entry on a mainframe system may have no need for Internet access or the ability to run reports regarding the information that they are entering into the system. Conversely, a supervisor may have the need to run reports, but should not be provided the capability to change information in the database.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10628-10631). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition. and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10635-10638). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10693-10697). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 16338-16341). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 19

Which of the following Kerberos components holds all users' and services' cryptographic keys?

  • A. The Key Distribution Service
  • B. The Authentication Service
  • C. The Key Distribution Center
  • D. The Key Granting Service

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Key Distribution Center (KDC) holds all users' and services' cryptographic keys. It provides authentication services, as well as key distribution functionality. The Authentication Service is the part of the KDC that authenticates a principal. The Key Distribution Service and Key Granting Service are distracters and are not defined Kerberos components.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CISSP Summary 2002, April 2002, CBK#1 Access Control System & Methodology (page 3)

NEW QUESTION 20

How many bits is the effective length of the key of the Data Encryption Standard algorithm?

  • A. 168
  • B. 128
  • C. 56
  • D. 64

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is "56". This is actually a bit of a trick question, since the actual key length is 64 bits. However, every eighth bit is ignored because it is used for parity. This makes the "effective length of the key" that the question actually asks for 56 bits.
The other answers are not correct because:
168 - This is the number of effective bits in Triple DES (56 times 3).
128 - Many encryption algorithms use 128 bit key, but not DES. Note that you may see 128 bit encryption referred to as "military strength encryption" because many military systems use key of this length.
64 - This is the actual length of a DES encryption key, but not the "effective length" of the DES key.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 238
All in One Third Edition page: 622

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following packets should NOT be dropped at a firewall protecting an organization's internal network?

  • A. Inbound packets with Source Routing option set
  • B. Router information exchange protocols
  • C. Inbound packets with an internal address as the source IP address
  • D. Outbound packets with an external destination IP address

Answer: D

Explanation:
Normal outbound traffic has an internal source IP address and an external destination IP address.
Traffic with an internal source IP address should only come from an internal interface. Such packets coming from an external interface should be dropped.
Packets with the source-routing option enabled usually indicates a network intrusion attempt.
Router information exchange protocols like RIP and OSPF should be dropped to avoid having internal routing equipment being reconfigured by external agents.
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 10: The Perfect Firewall.

NEW QUESTION 22

Which security model is based on the military classification of data and people with clearances?

  • A. Brewer-Nash model
  • B. Clark-Wilson model
  • C. Bell-LaPadula model
  • D. Biba model

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Bell-LaPadula model is a confidentiality model for information security based on the military classification of data, on people with clearances and data with a classification or sensitivity model. The Biba, Clark-Wilson and Brewer-Nash models are concerned with integrity.
Source: HARE, Chris, Security Architecture and Models, Area 6 CISSP Open Study Guide, January 2002.

NEW QUESTION 23

Which TCSEC class specifies discretionary protection?

  • A. B2
  • B. B1
  • C. C2
  • D. C1

Answer: D

Explanation:
C1 involves discretionary protection, C2 involves controlled access protection, B1 involves labeled security protection and B2 involves structured protection. Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

NEW QUESTION 24
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