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NEW QUESTION 1

What ISO/OSI layer do switches primarily operate at?
Do take note that this question makes reference to a plain vanilla switch and not one of the smart switches that is available on the market today.

  • A. Physical layer
  • B. Network layer
  • C. Data link layer
  • D. Session layer

Answer: C

Explanation:
Switches primarily operate at the data link layer (layer 2), although intelligent, extremely fast Layer 3 switching techniques are being more frequently used.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 111).

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following is not a component of a Operations Security "triples"?

  • A. Asset
  • B. Threat
  • C. Vulnerability
  • D. Risk

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Operations Security domain is concerned with triples - threats, vulnerabilities and assets.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 216.

NEW QUESTION 3

In order to enable users to perform tasks and duties without having to go through extra steps it is important that the security controls and mechanisms that are in place have a degree of?

  • A. Complexity
  • B. Non-transparency
  • C. Transparency
  • D. Simplicity

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security controls and mechanisms that are in place must have a degree of transparency.
This enables the user to perform tasks and duties without having to go through extra steps because of the presence of the security controls. Transparency also does not let the user know too much about the controls, which helps prevent him from figuring out how to circumvent them. If the controls are too obvious, an attacker can figure out how to compromise them more easily.
Security (more specifically, the implementation of most security controls) has long been a sore point with users who are subject to security controls. Historically, security controls have been very intrusive to users, forcing them to interrupt their work flow and remember arcane codes or processes (like long passwords or access codes), and have generally been seen as an obstacle to getting work done. In recent years, much work has been done to remove that stigma of security controls as a detractor from the work process adding nothing but time and money. When developing access control, the system must be as transparent as possible to the end user. The users should be required to interact with the system as little as possible, and the process around using the control should be engineered so as to involve little effort on the part of the user.
For example, requiring a user to swipe an access card through a reader is an effective way to ensure a person is authorized to enter a room. However, implementing a technology (such as RFID) that will automatically scan the badge as the user approaches the door is more transparent to the user and will do less to impede the movement of personnel in a busy area.
In another example, asking a user to understand what applications and data sets will be required when requesting a system ID and then specifically requesting access to those resources may allow for a great deal of granularity when provisioning access, but it can hardly be seen as transparent. A more transparent process would be for the access provisioning system to have a role-based structure, where the user would simply specify the role he or she has in the organization and the system would know the specific resources that user needs to access based on that role. This requires less work and interaction on the part of the user and will lead to more accurate and secure access control decisions because access will be based on predefined need, not user preference.
When developing and implementing an access control system special care should be taken to ensure that the control is as transparent to the end user as possible and interrupts his work flow as little as possible.
The following answers were incorrect: All of the other detractors were incorrect.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 6th edition. Operations Security, Page 1239-1240
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 25278-25281). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Access Control ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 713-729). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 4

Ensuring least privilege does not require:

  • A. Identifying what the user's job is.
  • B. Ensuring that the user alone does not have sufficient rights to subvert an important process.
  • C. Determining the minimum set of privileges required for a user to perform their duties.
  • D. Restricting the user to required privileges and nothing more.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ensuring that the user alone does not have sufficient rights to subvert an important process is a concern of the separation of duties principle and it does not concern the least privilege principle.
Source: DUPUIS, Cl??ment, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study
Guide, version 1.0, march 2002 (page 33).

NEW QUESTION 5

If an employee's computer has been used by a fraudulent employee to commit a crime, the hard disk may be seized as evidence and once the investigation is complete it would follow the normal steps of the Evidence Life Cycle. In such case, the Evidence life cycle would not include which of the following steps listed below?

  • A. Acquisition collection and identification
  • B. Analysis
  • C. Storage, preservation, and transportation
  • D. Destruction

Answer: D

Explanation:
Unless the evidence is illegal then it should be returned to owner, not destroyed.
The Evidence Life Cycle starts with the discovery and collection of the evidence. It progresses through the following series of states until it is finally returned to the victim or owner:
• Acquisition collection and identification
• Analysis
• Storage, preservation, and transportation
• Presented in court
• Returned to victim (owner)
The Second edition of the ISC2 book says on page 529-530:
Identifying evidence: Correctly identifying the crime scene, evidence, and potential containers of evidence.
Collecting or acquiring evidence: Adhering to the criminalistic principles and ensuring that the contamination and the destruction of the scene are kept to a minimum. Using sound, repeatable, collection techniques that allow for the demonstration of the accuracy and integrity of evidence, or copies of evidence.
Examining or analyzing the evidence: Using sound scientific methods to determine the characteristics of the evidence, conducting comparison for individuation of evidence, and conducting event reconstruction.
Presentation of findings: Interpreting the output from the examination and analysis based on findings of fact and articulating these in a format appropriate for the intended audience (e.g., court brief, executive memo, report).
Note on returning the evidence to the Owner/Victim
The final destination of most types of evidence is back with its original owner. Some types of evidence, such as
drugs or drug paraphernalia (i.e., contraband), are destroyed after the trial.
Any evidence gathered during a search, although maintained by law enforcement, is legally under the control of the courts. And although a seized item may be yours and may even have your name on it, it might not be returned to you unless the suspect signs a release or after a hearing by the court. Unfortunately, many victims do not want to go to trial; they just want to get their property back.
Many investigations merely need the information on a disk to prove or disprove a fact in question; thus, there is no need to seize the entire system. Once a schematic of the system is drawn or photographed, the hard disk can be removed and then transported to a forensic lab for copying.
Mirror copies of the suspect disk are obtained using forensic software and then one of those copies can be returned to the victim so that business operations can resume.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 9: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 309).
and
The Official Study Book, Second Edition, Page 529-230

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?

  • A. Pipelining
  • B. Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)
  • C. Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)
  • D. Scalar processors

Answer: C

Explanation:
Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) uses instructions that perform many operations per instruction. It was based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle. Therefore, by packing more operations into an instruction, the number of fetches could be reduced. Pipelining involves overlapping the steps of different instructions to increase the performance in a computer. Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC) involve simpler instructions that require fewer clock cycles to execute. Scalar processors are processors that execute one instruction at a time. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 188).

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following layers provides end-to-end data transfer service?

  • A. Network Layer.
  • B. Data Link Layer.
  • C. Transport Layer.
  • D. Presentation Layer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
It is the Transport Layer that is responsible for reliable end-to-end data transfer between end systems.
The following answers are incorrect:
Network Layer. Is incorrect because the Network Layer is the OSI layer that is responsible for routing, switching, and subnetwork access across the entire OSI environment.
Data Link Layer. Is incorrect because the Data Link Layer is the serial communications path between nodes or devices without any intermediate switching nodes.
Presentation Layer. Is incorrect because the Presentation Layer is the OSI layer that determines how application information is represented (i.e., encoded) while in transit between two end systems.

NEW QUESTION 8

What is the maximum number of different keys that can be used when encrypting with Triple DES?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
Triple DES encrypts a message three times. This encryption can be accomplished in several ways. The most secure form of triple DES is when the three encryptions are performed with three different keys.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 152).

NEW QUESTION 9

In what type of attack does an attacker try, from several encrypted messages, to figure out the key used in the encryption process?

  • A. Known-plaintext attack
  • B. Ciphertext-only attack
  • C. Chosen-Ciphertext attack
  • D. Plaintext-only attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
In a ciphertext-only attack, the attacker has the ciphertext of several messages encrypted with the same encryption algorithm. Its goal is to discover the plaintext of the messages by figuring out the key used in the encryption process. In a known-plaintext attack, the attacker has the plaintext and the ciphertext of one or more messages. In a chosen-ciphertext attack, the attacker can chose the ciphertext to be decrypted and has access to the resulting plaintext.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 8: Cryptography (page 578).

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following rules appearing in an Internet firewall policy is inappropriate?

  • A. Source routing shall be disabled on all firewalls and external routers.
  • B. Firewalls shall be configured to transparently allow all outbound and inbound services.
  • C. Firewalls should fail to a configuration that denies all services, and require a firewall administrator to re-enable services after a firewall has failed.
  • D. Firewalls shall not accept traffic on its external interfaces that appear to be coming from internal network addresses.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Unless approved by the Network Services manager, all in-bound services shall be intercepted and processed by the firewall. Allowing unrestricted services inbound and outbound is certainly NOT recommended and very dangerous.
Pay close attention to the keyword: all
All of the other choices presented are recommended practices for a firewall policy. Reference(s) used for this question:
GUTTMAN, Barbara & BAGWILL, Robert, NIST Special Publication 800-xx, Internet Security Policy: A Technical Guide, Draft Version, May 25, 2000 (page 78).

NEW QUESTION 11

A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires which of the following?

  • A. Risk Acceptance
  • B. Risk Assignment
  • C. Risk Reduction
  • D. Risk Containment

Answer: A

Explanation:
A deviation from an organization-wide security policy requires you to manage the risk. If you deviate from the security policy then you are required to accept the risks that might occur.
In some cases, it may be prudent for an organization to simply accept the risk that is presented in certain scenarios. Risk acceptance is the practice of accepting certain risk(s), typically based on a business decision that may also weigh the cost versus the benefit of dealing with the risk in another way.
The OIG defines Risk Management as: This term characterizes the overall process.
The first phase of risk assessment includes identifying risks, risk-reducing measures, and the budgetary impact of implementing decisions related to the acceptance, avoidance, or transfer of risk.
The second phase of risk management includes the process of assigning priority to, budgeting, implementing, and maintaining appropriate risk-reducing measures.
Risk management is a continuous process of ever-increasing complexity. It is how we evaluate the impact of exposures and respond to them. Risk management minimizes loss to information assets due to undesirable events through identification, measurement, and control. It encompasses the overall security review, risk analysis, selection and evaluation of safeguards, cost?Cbenefit analysis, management decision, and safeguard identification and implementation, along with ongoing effectiveness review.
Risk management provides a mechanism to the organization to ensure that executive management knows current risks, and informed decisions can be made to use one of the risk management principles: risk avoidance, risk transfer, risk mitigation, or risk acceptance.
The 4 ways of dealing with risks are: Avoidance, Transfer, Mitigation, Acceptance The following answers are incorrect:
Risk assignment. Is incorrect because it is a distractor, assignment is not one of the ways to manage risk.
Risk reduction. Is incorrect because there was a deviation of the security policy. You could have some additional exposure by the fact that you deviated from the policy.
Risk containment. Is incorrect because it is a distractor, containment is not one of the ways to manage risk.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 8882-8886). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 10206-10208). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 12

Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?

  • A. timeslot replay
  • B. password guessing
  • C. symmetric key guessing
  • D. asymmetric key guessing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Sesame is an authentication and access control protocol, that also supports communication confidentiality and integrity. It provides public key based authentication along with the Kerberos style authentication, that uses symmetric key cryptography. Sesame supports the Kerberos protocol and adds some security extensions like public key based authentication and an ECMA-style Privilege Attribute Service.
The users under SESAME can authenticate using either symmetric encryption as in Kerberos or Public Key authentication. When using Symmetric Key authentication as in Kerberos, SESAME is also vulnerable to password guessing just like Kerberos would be.
The Symmetric key being used is based on the password used by the user when he logged on the system. If the user has a simple password it could be guessed or compromise. Even thou Kerberos or SESAME may be use, there is still a need to have strong password discipline.
The Basic Mechanism in Sesame for strong authentication is as follow:
The user sends a request for authentication to the Authentication Server as in Kerberos, except that SESAME is making use of public key cryptography for authentication where the client will present his digital certificate and the request will be signed using a digital signature. The signature is communicated to the authentication server through the preauthentication fields. Upon receipt of this request, the authentication server will verifies the certificate, then validate the signature, and if all is fine the AS will issue a ticket granting ticket (TGT) as in Kerberos. This TGT will be use to communicate with the privilage attribute server (PAS) when access to a resource is needed.
Users may authenticate using either a public key pair or a conventional (symmetric) key. If public key cryptography is used, public key data is transported in preauthentication data fields to help establish identity.
Kerberos uses tickets for authenticating subjects to objects and SESAME uses Privileged Attribute Certificates (PAC), which contain the subject??s identity, access capabilities for the object, access time period, and lifetime of the PAC. The PAC is digitally signed so that the object can validate that it came from the trusted authentication server, which is referred to as the privilege attribute server (PAS). The PAS holds a similar role as the KDC within Kerberos. After a user successfully authenticates to the authentication service (AS), he is presented with a token to give to the PAS. The PAS then creates a PAC for the user to present to the resource he is trying to access.
Reference(s) used for this question: http://srg.cs.uiuc.edu/Security/nephilim/Internal/SESAME.txt
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 43.

NEW QUESTION 13

The information security staff's participation in which of the following system development life cycle phases provides maximum benefit to the organization?

  • A. project initiation and planning phase
  • B. system design specifications phase
  • C. development and documentation phase
  • D. in parallel with every phase throughout the project

Answer: D

Explanation:
The other answers are not correct because:
You are always looking for the "best" answer. While each of the answers listed here could be considered correct in that each of them require input from the security staff, the best answer is for that input to happen at all phases of the project.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 556
All in One Third Edition page: 832 - 833

NEW QUESTION 14

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

  • A. It can be very invasive to the host operating system
  • B. Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only
  • C. Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption
  • D. They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

Answer: A

Explanation:
The biggest drawback of HIDS, and the reason many organizations resist its use, is that it can be very invasive to the host operating system. HIDS must have the capability to monitor all processes and activities on the host system and this can sometimes interfere with normal system processing.
HIDS versus NIDS
A host-based IDS (HIDS) can be installed on individual workstations and/ or servers to watch for inappropriate or anomalous activity. HIDSs are usually used to make sure users do not delete system files, reconfigure important settings, or put the system at risk in any other way.
So, whereas the NIDS understands and monitors the network traffic, a HIDS??s universe is
limited to the computer itself. A HIDS does not understand or review network traffic, and a NIDS does not ??look in?? and monitor a system??s activity. Each has its own job and stays out of the other??s way.
The ISC2 official study book defines an IDS as:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technology that alerts organizations to adverse or unwanted activity. An IDS can be implemented as part of a network device, such as a router, switch, or firewall, or it can be a dedicated IDS device monitoring traffic as it traverses the network. When used in this way, it is referred to as a network IDS, or NIDS. IDS can also be used on individual host systems to monitor and report on file, disk, and process activity on that host. When used in this way it is referred to as a host-based IDS, or HIDS.
An IDS is informative by nature and provides real-time information when suspicious activities are identified. It is primarily a detective device and, acting in this traditional role, is not used to directly prevent the suspected attack.
What about IPS?
In contrast, an intrusion prevention system (IPS), is a technology that monitors activity like an IDS but will automatically take proactive preventative action if it detects unacceptable activity. An IPS permits a predetermined set of functions and actions to occur on a network or system; anything that is not permitted is considered unwanted activity and blocked. IPS is engineered specifically to respond in real time to an event at the system or network layer. By proactively enforcing policy, IPS can thwart not only attackers, but also authorized users attempting to perform an action that is not within policy. Fundamentally, IPS is considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS is considered network monitoring and audit technology.
The following answers were incorrect:
All of the other answer were advantages and not drawback of using HIDS
TIP FOR THE EXAM:
Be familiar with the differences that exists between an HIDS, NIDS, and IPS. Know that IDS's are mostly detective but IPS are preventive. IPS's are considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS's are considered network monitoring and audit technology.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations
5817-5822). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition. and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Access Control ((ISC)2 Press), Domain1, Page 180-188 or on the kindle version look for Kindle Locations 3199-3203. Auerbach Publications.

NEW QUESTION 15

Which type of attack consists of modifying the length and fragmentation offset fields in sequential IP packets?

  • A. Teardrop attack
  • B. Smurf attack
  • C. SYN attack
  • D. Buffer overflow attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
A teardrop attack consists of modifying the length and fragmentation offset fields in sequential IP packets so the target system becomes confused and crashes after it receives contradictory instructions on how the fragments are offset on these packets. A SYN attack is when an attacker floods a system with connection requests but does not respond when the target system replies to those requests. A smurf attack is an attack where the attacker spoofs the source IP address in an ICMP ECHO broadcast packet so it seems to have originated at the victim's system, in order to flood it with REPLY packets. A buffer overflow attack occurs when a process receives much more data than expected. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 76).

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following is a problem regarding computer investigation issues?

  • A. Information is tangible.
  • B. Evidence is easy to gather.
  • C. Computer-generated records are only considered secondary evidence, thus are not as reliable as best evidence.
  • D. In many instances, an expert or specialist is not required.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Because computer-generated records normally fall under the category of hearsay evidence because they cannot be proven accurate and reliable this can be a problem.
Under the U.S. Federal Rules of Evidence, hearsay evidence is generally not admissible in court. This inadmissibility is known as the hearsay rule, although there are some exceptions for how, when, by whom and in what circumstances data was collected. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 9: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 310).
IMPORTANT NOTE:
For the purpose of the exam it is very important to remember the Business Record
exemption to the Hearsay Rule. For example: if you create log files and review them on a regular basis as part of a business process, such files would be admissable in court and they would not be considered hearsay because they were made in the course of regular business and it is part of regular course of business to create such record.
Here is another quote from the HISM book: Business Record Exemption to the Hearsay Rule
Federal Rules of Evidence 803(6) allow a court to admit a report or other business
document made at or near the time by or from information transmitted by a person with knowledge, if kept in the course of regularly conducted business activity, and if it was the regular practice of that business activity to make the [report or document], all as shown by testimony of the custodian or other qualified witness, unless the source of information or the method or circumstances of preparation indicate lack of trustworthiness.
To meet Rule 803(6) the witness must:
• Have custody of the records in question on a regular basis.
• Rely on those records in the regular course of business.
• Know that they were prepared in the regular course of business.
Audit trails meet the criteria if they are produced in the normal course of business. The process to produce the output will have to be proven to be reliable. If computer-generated evidence is used and admissible, the court may order disclosure of the details of the computer, logs, and maintenance records in respect to the system generating the printout, and then the defense may use that material to attack the reliability of the evidence. If the audit trails are not used or reviewed ?? at least the exceptions (e.g., failed log-on attempts)
?? in the regular course of business, they do not meet the criteria for admissibility.
Federal Rules of Evidence 1001(3) provide another exception to the hearsay rule. This rule allows a memory or disk dump to be admitted as evidence, even though it is not done in the regular course of business. This dump merely acts as statement of fact. System dumps (in binary or hexadecimal) are not hearsay because they are not being offered to prove the truth of the contents, but only the state of the computer.
BUSINESS RECORDS LAW EXAMPLE:
The business records law was enacted in 1931 (PA No. 56). For a document to be admissible under the statute, the proponent must show: (1) the document was made in the regular course of business; (2) it was the regular course of business to make the record; and (3) the record was made when the act, transaction, or event occurred, or shortly
thereafter (State v. Vennard, 159 Conn. 385, 397 (1970); Mucci v. LeMonte, 157 Conn. 566, 570 (1969). The failure to establish any one of these essential elements renders the document inadmissible under the statute (McCahill v. Town and Country Associates, Ltd. , 185 Conn. 37 (1981); State v. Peary, 176 Conn. 170 (1978); Welles v. Fish Transport Co. ,
, 123 Conn. 49 (1937).
The statute expressly provides that the person who made the business entry does not have to be unavailable as a witness and the proponent does not have to call as a witness the person who made the record or show the person to be unavailable (State v. Jeustiniano, 172 Conn. 275 (1977).
The person offering the business records as evidence does not have to independently prove the trustworthiness of the record. But, there is no presumption that the record is accurate; the record's accuracy and weight are issues for the trier of fact (State v. Waterman, 7 Conn. App. 326 (1986); Handbook of Connecticut Evidence, Second Edition,
?? 11. 14. 3).
Reference: http://search.cga.state.ct.us/dtsearch_lpa.asp?cmd=getdoc&DocId=16833&Index=I%3A%5 Czindex%5C1995&HitCount=0&hits=&hc=0&req=&Item=712

NEW QUESTION 17

Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed for information systems resources?

  • A. IS security specialists
  • B. Senior Management
  • C. Senior security analysts
  • D. systems Auditors

Answer: B

Explanation:
If there is no support by senior management to implement, execute, and enforce security policies and procedure, then they won't work. Senior management must be involved in this because they have an obligation to the organization to protect the assests . The requirement here is for management to show ??due diligence?? in establishing an effective compliance, or security program. It is senior management that could face legal repercussions if they do not have sufficient controls in place.
The following answers are incorrect:
IS security specialists. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. Senior management bears the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed.
Senior security analysts. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. Senior management bears the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed.
systems auditors. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, system auditors are responsible that the controls in place are effective. Senior management bears the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed.

NEW QUESTION 18

In addition to the Legal Department, with what company function must the collection of physical evidence be coordinated if an employee is suspected?

  • A. Human Resources
  • B. Industrial Security
  • C. Public Relations
  • D. External Audit Group

Answer: A

Explanation:
If an employee is suspected of causing an incident, the human resources department may be involved??for example, in assisting with disciplinary proceedings.
Legal Department. The legal experts should review incident response plans, policies, and procedures to ensure their compliance with law and Federal guidance, including the right to privacy. In addition, the guidance of the general counsel or legal department should be sought if there is reason to believe that an incident may have legal ramifications, including evidence collection, prosecution of a suspect, or a lawsuit, or if there may be a need for a memorandum of understanding (MOU) or other binding agreements involving liability limitations for information sharing.
Public Affairs, Public Relations, and Media Relations. Depending on the nature and impact of an incident, a need may exist to inform the media and, by extension, the public.
The Incident response team members could include: Management
Information Security Legal / Human Resources Public Relations Communications
Physical Security Network Security
Network and System Administrators Network and System Security Administrators Internal Audit
Events versus Incidents
An event is any observable occurrence in a system or network. Events include a user connecting to a file share, a server receiving a request for a web page, a user sending email, and a firewall blocking a connection attempt. Adverse events are events with a negative consequence, such as system crashes, packet floods, unauthorized use of system privileges, unauthorized access to sensitive data, and execution of malware that destroys data. This guide addresses only adverse events that are computer security- related, not those caused by natural disasters, power failures, etc.
A computer security incident is a violation or imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices.
Examples of incidents are:
An attacker commands a botnet to send high volumes of connection requests to a web server, causing it to crash.
Users are tricked into opening a ??quarterly report?? sent via email that is actually malware; running the tool has infected their computers and established connections with an external host.
An attacker obtains sensitive data and threatens that the details will be released publicly if the organization does not pay a designated sum of money.
A user provides or exposes sensitive information to others through peer-to-peer file sharing services.
The following answers are incorrect:
Industrial Security. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, the human resource department must be involved with the collection of physical evidence if an employee is suspected.
public relations. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. It would be an important element to minimize public image damage but not the best choice for this question.
External Audit Group. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, the human resource department must be involved with the collection of physical evidence if an employee is suspected.
Reference(s) used for this question: NIST Special Publication 800-61

NEW QUESTION 19

What does the Clark-Wilson security model focus on?

  • A. Confidentiality
  • B. Integrity
  • C. Accountability
  • D. Availability

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Clark-Wilson model addresses integrity. It incorporates mechanisms to enforce internal and external consistency, a separation of duty, and a mandatory integrity policy.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 205).

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following would best describe the difference between white-box testing and black-box testing?

  • A. White-box testing is performed by an independent programmer team.
  • B. Black-box testing uses the bottom-up approach.
  • C. White-box testing examines the program internal logical structure.
  • D. Black-box testing involves the business units

Answer: C

Explanation:
Black-box testing observes the system external behavior, while white-box testing is a detailed exam of a logical path, checking the possible conditions.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 299).

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following is NOT an advantage that TACACS+ has over TACACS?

  • A. Event logging
  • B. Use of two-factor password authentication
  • C. User has the ability to change his password
  • D. Ability for security tokens to be resynchronized

Answer: A

Explanation:
Although TACACS+ provides better audit trails, event logging is a service that is provided with TACACS.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 121).

NEW QUESTION 22

In which of the following phases of system development life cycle (SDLC) is contingency planning most important?

  • A. Initiation
  • B. Development/acquisition
  • C. Implementation
  • D. Operation/maintenance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Contingency planning requirements should be considered at every phase of SDLC, but most importantly when a new IT system is being conceived. In the initiation phase, system requirements are identified and matched to their related operational processes, allowing determination of the system's appropriate recovery priority.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems, December 2001 (page 12).
and
The Official ISC2 Guide to the CBK, Second Edition, Application Security, page 180-185

NEW QUESTION 23

Smart cards are an example of which type of control?

  • A. Detective control
  • B. Administrative control
  • C. Technical control
  • D. Physical control

Answer: C

Explanation:
Logical or technical controls involve the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information. Smart cards and encryption are examples of these types of control.
Controls are put into place to reduce the risk an organization faces, and they come in three main flavors: administrative, technical, and physical. Administrative controls are commonly referred to as ??soft controls?? because they are more management-oriented. Examples of administrative controls are security documentation, risk management, personnel security, and training. Technical controls (also called logical controls) are software or hardware components, as in firewalls, IDS, encryption, identification and authentication mechanisms. And physical controls are items put into place to protect facility, personnel, and resources. Examples of physical controls are security guards, locks, fencing, and lighting.
Many types of technical controls enable a user to access a system and the resources within that system. A technical control may be a username and password combination, a Kerberos implementation, biometrics, public key infrastructure (PKI), RADIUS, TACACS +, or authentication using a smart card through a reader connected to a system. These technologies verify the user is who he says he is by using different types of authentication methods. Once a user is properly authenticated, he can be authorized and allowed access to network resources.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 245). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 32).

NEW QUESTION 24
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