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Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following environments would MOST likely be used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics?

  • A. Test
  • B. Staging
  • C. Development
  • D. Production

Answer: A

Explanation:
The test environment is used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 2

NEW QUESTION 2

A security analyst was deploying a new website and found a connection attempting to authenticate on the site's portal. While Investigating The incident, the analyst identified the following Input in the username field:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following BEST explains this type of attack?

  • A. DLL injection to hijack administrator services
  • B. SQLi on the field to bypass authentication
  • C. Execution of a stored XSS on the website
  • D. Code to execute a race condition on the server

Answer: B

Explanation:
The input "admin' or 1=1--" in the username field is an example of SQL injection (SQLi) attack. In this case, the attacker is attempting to bypass authentication by injecting SQL code into the username field that will cause the authentication check to always return true. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.1 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to assess the security posture of an organization.

NEW QUESTION 3

A security analyst is currently addressing an active cyber incident. The analyst has been able to identify affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Which of the following is the next step according to the incident response process?

  • A. Recovery
  • B. Lessons learned
  • C. Containment
  • D. Preparation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration
https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/incident-response https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response

NEW QUESTION 4

During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the ‘company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).

  • A. Federation
  • B. Identity proofing
  • C. Password complexity
  • D. Default password changes
  • E. Password manager
  • F. Open authentication

Answer: AF

Explanation:
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.keycloak.org/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

NEW QUESTION 5

A security engineer needs to build @ solution to satisfy regulatory requirements that stale certain critical servers must be accessed using MFA However, the critical servers are older and are unable to support the addition of MFA, Which of te following will the engineer MOST likely use to achieve this objective?

  • A. A forward proxy
  • B. A stateful firewall
  • C. A jump server
  • D. A port tap

Answer: C

Explanation:
A jump server is a secure host that allows users to access other servers within a network. The jump server acts as an intermediary, and users can access other servers via the jump server after authenticating with MFA.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following BEST describes data streams that are compiled through artificial intelligence that provides insight on current cyberintrusions, phishing, and other malicious cyberactivity?

  • A. Intelligence fusion
  • B. Review reports
  • C. Log reviews
  • D. Threat feeds

Answer: A

Explanation:
Intelligence fusion is a process that involves aggregating and analyzing data from multiple sources, including artificial intelligence, to provide insight on current cyberintrusions, phishing, and other malicious cyberactivity.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Glossary, p. 767.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company’s final software releases? (Select TWO.)

  • A. Unsecure protocols
  • B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
  • C. Weak passwords
  • D. Included third-party libraries
  • E. Vendors/supply chain
  • F. Outdated anti-malware software

Answer: DE

Explanation:
The most likely vectors for the unauthorized inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company's final software releases are included third-party libraries and vendors/supply chain. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 8: Application, Data, and Host Security, Supply Chain and Software Development Life Cycle

NEW QUESTION 8

Given the following snippet of Python code:
Which of the following types of malware MOST likely contains this snippet?
SY0-701 dumps exhibit

  • A. Logic bomb
  • B. Keylogger
  • C. Backdoor
  • D. Ransomware

Answer: A

Explanation:
A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes malicious code when certain conditions are met. A logic bomb can be triggered by various events, such as a specific date or time, a user action, a system configuration change, or a command from an attacker. A logic bomb can perform various malicious actions, such as deleting files, encrypting data, displaying messages, or launching other malware.
The snippet of Python code shows a logic bomb that executes a function called delete_all_files() when the current date is December 25th. The code uses the datetime module to get the current date and compare it with a predefined date object. If the condition is true, the code calls the delete_all_files() function, which presumably deletes all files on the system.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/logic-bomb

NEW QUESTION 9

A security architect is working on an email solution that will send sensitive data. However, funds are not currently available in the budget for building additional infrastructure. Which of the following should the architect choose?

  • A. POP
  • B. IPSec
  • C. IMAP
  • D. PGP

Answer: D

Explanation:
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is a commonly used encryption method for email communications to secure the sensitive data being sent. It allows for the encryption of the entire message or just the sensitive parts. It would be an appropriate solution in this case as it doesn't require additional infrastructure to implement.

NEW QUESTION 10

A user is trying unsuccessfully to send images via SMS. The user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone. Which of the following policies is preventing the user from completing this action?

  • A. Application management
  • B. Content management
  • C. Containerization
  • D. Full disk encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
Content management is a policy that controls what types of data can be accessed, modified, shared, or transferred by users or applications. Content management can prevent data leakage or exfiltration by blocking or restricting certain actions, such as copying, printing, emailing, or sending data via SMS. If the user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone, the content management policy may prevent the user from sending the images via SMS to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data.
References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and
Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 2
CompTIA
Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.1: Implement
secure network architecture concepts 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention

NEW QUESTION 11

A global company is experiencing unauthorized logging due to credential theft and account lockouts caused by brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third-party identity provider to help mitigate these attacks. Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective vendors?

  • A. IP restrictions
  • B. Multifactor authentication
  • C. A banned password list
  • D. A complex password policy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

NEW QUESTION 12

As part of annual audit requirements, the security team performed a review of exceptions to the company policy that allows specific users the ability to use USB storage devices on their laptops The review yielded the following results.
• The exception process and policy have been correctly followed by the majority of users
• A small number of users did not create tickets for the requests but were granted access
• All access had been approved by supervisors.
• Valid requests for the access sporadically occurred across multiple departments.
• Access, in most cases, had not been removed when it was no longer needed
Which of the following should the company do to ensure that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame?

  • A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee's supervisor denies the approval
  • B. Remove access for all employees and only allow new access to be granted if the employee's supervisor approves the request
  • C. Perform a quarterly audit of all user accounts that have been granted access and verify the exceptions with the management team
  • D. Implement a ticketing system that tracks each request and generates reports listing which employees actively use USB storage devices

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents, the correct answer option is A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee’s supervisor denies the approval12.
This option ensures that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame by requiring supervisors to approve or deny the exceptions on a regular basis. It also reduces the manual workload of the security team and improves the compliance with the company policy.

NEW QUESTION 13

An enterprise needs to keep cryptographic keys in a safe manner. Which of the following network appliances can achieve this goal?

  • A. HSM
  • B. CASB
  • C. TPM
  • D. DLP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a network appliance designed to securely store cryptographic keys and perform cryptographic operations. HSMs provide a secure environment for key management and can be used to keep cryptographic keys safe from theft, loss, or unauthorized access. Therefore, an enterprise can achieve the goal of keeping cryptographic keys in a safe manner by using an HSM appliance. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 2.0: Technologies and Tools, 2.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate tools and techniques to troubleshoot security issues, p. 21

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems?

  • A. GDPR
  • B. PCI DSS
  • C. ISO 27000
  • D. NIST 800-53

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIST 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, pp. 123-125

NEW QUESTION 15

A user is trying to upload a tax document, which the corporate finance department requested, but a security program IS prohibiting the upload A security analyst determines the file contains Pll, Which of
the following steps can the analyst take to correct this issue?

  • A. Create a URL filter with an exception for the destination website.
  • B. Add a firewall rule to the outbound proxy to allow file uploads
  • C. Issue a new device certificate to the user's workstation.
  • D. Modify the exception list on the DLP to allow the upload

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are used to identify and protect sensitive data, and often include a list of exceptions that allow certain types of data to be uploaded or shared. By modifying the exception list on the DLP, the security analyst can allow the tax document to be uploaded without compromising the security of the system. (Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Textbook, page 479-480)

NEW QUESTION 16

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

  • A. Default system configuration
  • B. Unsecure protocols
  • C. Lack of vendor support
  • D. Weak encryption

Answer: C

Explanation:
One of the risks of using legacy software is the lack of vendor support. This means that the vendor may no longer provide security patches, software updates, or technical support for the software. This leaves the software vulnerable to new security threats and vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.

NEW QUESTION 17

A security administrator wants to implement a program that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?

  • A. Social media analysis
  • B. Annual information security training
  • C. Gamification
  • D. Phishing campaign

Answer: D

Explanation:
A phishing campaign is a simulated attack that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system. Phishing campaigns can be used to train users on how to identify and report suspicious emails.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 85-86.

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following cryptographic concepts would a security engineer utilize while implementing non-repudiation? (Select TWO)

  • A. Block cipher
  • B. Hashing
  • C. Private key
  • D. Perfect forward secrecy
  • E. Salting
  • F. Symmetric keys

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Non-repudiation is the ability to ensure that a party cannot deny a previous action or event. Cryptographic concepts that can be used to implement non-repudiation include hashing and digital signatures, which use a private key to sign a message and ensure that the signature is unique to the signer. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

NEW QUESTION 19

A report delivered to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) shows that some user credentials could be exfiltrated. The report also indicates that users tend to choose the same credentials on different systems and applications. Which of the following policies should the CISO use to prevent someone from using the exfiltrated credentials?

  • A. MFA
  • B. Lockout
  • C. Time-based logins
  • D. Password history

Answer: A

Explanation:
MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity using two or more
factors, such as something you know (e.g., password), something you have (e.g., token), or something you are (e.g., biometrics). MFA can prevent someone from using the exfiltrated credentials, as they would need to provide another factor besides the username and password to access the system or application. MFA can also alert the legitimate user of an unauthorized login attempt, allowing them to change their credentials or report the incident. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/multi-factor-authentication-5/

NEW QUESTION 20

A company completed a vulnerability scan. The scan found malware on several systems that were running older versions of Windows. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the malware infection?

  • A. Open permissions
  • B. Improper or weak patch management
  • C. Unsecure root accounts
  • D. Default settings

Answer: B

Explanation:
The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems.
It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management.
Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and
maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data."
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: SY0-601 by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Security%2B+Study+Guide%3A+SY0-601-p-9781119515968

NEW QUESTION 21
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