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Free demo questions for CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Dumps Below:

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed?

  • A. A full inventory of all hardware and software
  • B. Documentation of system classifications
  • C. A list of system owners and their departments
  • D. Third-party risk assessment documentation

Answer: A

Explanation:
A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
SY0-701 dumps exhibithttps://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. laaS
  • D. DaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else. It allows clients to have more control and flexibility over the configuration and management of their infrastructure resources, but also requires them to install and maintain their own operating systems, applications, etc.

NEW QUESTION 3

Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training 10 ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?

  • A. Encrypted
  • B. Intellectual property
  • C. Critical
  • D. Data in transit

Answer: B

Explanation:
Intellectual property is a type of data that is proprietary and unique to an organization. It includes trade secrets and other information that the organization does not want to share with third parties or competitors. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products, services, or processes for the organization. Intellectual property data requires a high level of security and protection, as it can provide a competitive advantage or disadvantage if leaked or stolen.
Encrypted data is not a type of data, but a state of data. Encryption is a method of transforming data into an unreadable format using a key, so that only authorized parties can access it. Encryption can be applied to any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or data in transit.
Critical data is a type of data that is essential for the operation and continuity of an organization. It includes information such as customer records, financial transactions, employee details, and so on. Critical data may or may not be intellectual property, depending on the nature and source of the data. Critical data also requires a high level of security and protection, as it can affect the reputation, performance, or legal compliance of the organization.
Data in transit is not a type of data, but a state of data. Data in transit refers to data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet, a LAN, or a WAN. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. Data in transit can also be any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or PII.

NEW QUESTION 4

During an assessment, a systems administrator found several hosts running FTP and decided to immediately block FTP communications at the firewall. Which of the following describes the
greatest risk associated with using FTP?

  • A. Private data can be leaked
  • B. FTP is prohibited by internal policy.
  • C. Users can upload personal files
  • D. Credentials are sent in cleartex

Answer: D

Explanation:
Credentials are sent in cleartext is the greatest risk associated with using FTP. FTP is an old protocol that does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted over the network. This means that anyone who can capture the network traffic can see the usernames and passwords of the FTP users, as well as the files they are transferring. This can lead to data breaches, identity theft, and unauthorized access. Private data can be leaked (Option A) is a possible consequence of using FTP, but not the root cause of the risk. FTP is prohibited by internal policy (Option B) is a compliance issue, but not a technical risk. Users can upload personal files (Option C) is a management issue, but not a security risk
https://www.infosectrain.com/blog/comptia-security-sy0-601-domain-5-governance-risk-and-compliance/

NEW QUESTION 5

An organization is concerned that ils hosted web servers are not running the most updated version of the software. Which of the following would work best to help identify potential vulnerabilities?

  • A. hping3 -S compcia.org -p 80
  • B. nc -1 -v comptia.crg -p 80
  • C. nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sv
  • D. nslookup -port«80 comptia.org

Answer: C

Explanation:
nmap is a network scanning tool that can perform various tasks such as port scanning, service detection, version detection, OS detection, vulnerability scanning, etc… nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sv is a command that scans port 80 (the default port for HTTP) on comptia.org domain name and tries to identify the service name and version running on that port. This can help identify potential vulnerabilities in the web server software by comparing the version with known exploits or patches.

NEW QUESTION 6

A security engineer needs to recommend a solution to defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. Which of the following will the engineer most likely recommended?

  • A. A content filter
  • B. AWAF
  • C. A next-generation firewall
  • D. An IDS

Answer: C

Explanation:
A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a solution that can defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. A NGFW is a type of firewall that can perform deep packet inspection, application-level filtering, intrusion prevention, malware detection, and identity-based access control. A NGFW can also use threat intelligence and behavioral analysis to identify and block malicious traffic based on protocols, signatures, or anomalies. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-next-generation-firewall
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following disaster recovery tests is the LEAST time consuming for the disaster recovery team?

  • A. Tabletop
  • B. Parallel
  • C. Full interruption
  • D. Simulation

Answer: A

Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery test that simulates a disaster scenario in a discussion-based format, without actually disrupting operations or requiring physical testing of recovery procedures. It is the least time-consuming type of test for the disaster recovery team.

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following is a solution that can be used to stop a disgruntled employee from copying confidential data to a USB drive?

  • A. DLP
  • B. TLS
  • C. AV
  • D. IDS

Answer: A

Explanation:
DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

NEW QUESTION 9

A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?

  • A. Content filter
  • B. SIEM
  • C. Firewall rules
  • D. DLP

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, Chapter 5: "Network Security".

NEW QUESTION 10

A security incident has been resolved Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final phase of the incident response plan?

  • A. It examines and documents how well the team responded discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future
  • B. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored and vulnerabilities addressed
  • C. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point
  • D. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach

Answer: A

Explanation:
The final phase of an incident response plan is the post-incident activity, which involves examining and documenting how well the team responded, discovering what caused the incident, and determining how the incident can be avoided in the future. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 225.

NEW QUESTION 11

A company's help desk has received calls about the wireless network being down and users being unable to connect to it The network administrator says all access points are up and running One of the help desk technicians notices the affected users are working in a building near the parking lot. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the outage?

  • A. Someone near the building is jamming the signal
  • B. A user has set up a rogue access point near the building
  • C. Someone set up an evil twin access point in the affected area.
  • D. The APs in the affected area have been unplugged from the network

Answer: A

Explanation:
Jamming is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves interfering with or blocking the wireless signal using a device that emits radio waves at the same frequency as the wireless network. It can cause the wireless network to be down and users to be unable to connect to it, especially if they are working in a building near the parking lot where someone could easily place a jamming device.

NEW QUESTION 12

An information security manager for an organization is completing a PCI DSS self-assessment for the first time. which of the is following MOST likely reason for this type of assessment?

  • A. An international expansion project is currently underway.
  • B. Outside consultants utilize this tool to measure security maturity.
  • C. The organization is expecting to process credit card information.
  • D. A government regulator has requested this audit to be completed

Answer: C

Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment. Any organization that accepts credit card payments is required to comply with PCI DSS.

NEW QUESTION 13

An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to facilitate penetration testing on its network and applications. The firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability that ts discovered. Which of the following BEST represents the type of testing that is being used?

  • A. White-box
  • B. Red-leam
  • C. Bug bounty
  • D. Gray-box
  • E. Black-box

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following function as preventive, detective, and deterrent controls to reduce the risk of physical theft? (Select TWO).

  • A. Mantraps
  • B. Security guards
  • C. Video surveillance
  • D. Fences
  • E. Bollards
  • F. Antivirus

Answer: AB

Explanation:
A - a mantrap can trap those personnal with bad intension(preventive), and kind of same as detecting, since you will know if someone is trapped there(detective), and it can deter those personnal from approaching as well(deterrent) B - security guards can sure do the same thing as above, preventing malicious personnal from entering(preventive+deterrent), and notice those personnal as well(detective)

NEW QUESTION 15

Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification
A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
SY0-701 dumps exhibit

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

A security analyst has been tasked with creating a new WiFi network for the company. The requirements received by the analyst are as follows:
•Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi
•The encryption keys need to change routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication
•Must be able to integrate with RADIUS
•Must not have any open SSIDs
Which of the following options BEST accommodates these requirements?

  • A. WPA2-Enterprise
  • B. WPA3-PSK
  • C. 802.11n
  • D. WPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detailed
WPA2-Enterprise can accommodate all of the requirements listed. WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication to differentiate between users, supports the use of RADIUS for authentication, and allows for the use of dynamic encryption keys that can be changed without disrupting the users or requiring reauthentication. Additionally, WPA2-Enterprise does not allow for open SSIDs.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7: Securing Networks, p. 317

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?

  • A. OCSP
  • B. CSR
  • C. CA
  • D. CRC

Answer: A

Explanation:
Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user. OCSP is a protocol that allows a client or browser to query the status of a certificate from an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains and provides the revocation status of certificates issued by a certificate authority (CA). OCSP can help to verify the authenticity and validity of a certificate and prevent the use of revoked or expired certificates. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ocsp
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 18

A security architect is required to deploy to conference rooms some workstations that will allow sensitive data to be displayed on large screens. Due to the nature of the data, it cannot be stored in the conference rooms. The file share is located in a local data center. Which of the following should the security architect recommend to best meet the requirement?

  • A. Fog computing and KVMs
  • B. VDI and thin clients
  • C. Private cloud and DLP
  • D. Full drive encryption and thick clients

Answer: B

Explanation:
VDI and thin clients are the best solution to deploy to conference rooms for displaying sensitive data on large screens. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that hosts the desktop operating systems and applications on a central server or cloud and allows users to access them remotely. Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a network connection to the VDI system. By using VDI and thin clients, the security architect can ensure that the sensitive data is not stored in the conference rooms, but rather in a secure data center or cloud. The thin clients can also be easily managed and updated centrally, reducing the maintenance costs and risks. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.acecloudhosting.com/blog/what-is-vdi-thin-client/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.parallels.com/blogs/ras/vdi-thin-client/

NEW QUESTION 19

A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at others. Which of the following would be best to help the organization's executives determine their next course of action?

  • A. An incident response plan
  • B. A communication plan
  • C. A disaster recovery plan
  • D. A business continuity plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions during and after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, pandemic, cyberattack, or power outage. A BCP typically covers topics such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, testing and training, and maintenance and review. A BCP can help the organization’s executives determine their next course of action by providing them with a clear framework and guidance for managing the crisis and resuming normal operations.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

NEW QUESTION 20

After a phishing scam fora user's credentials, the red team was able to craft payload to deploy on a server. The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session
Which of the following types of attacks has occurred?

  • A. Privilege escalation
  • B. Session replay
  • C. Application programming interface
  • D. Directory traversal

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112

NEW QUESTION 21
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