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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following incident response steps occurs before containment?

  • A. Eradication
  • B. Recovery
  • C. Lessons learned
  • D. Identification

Answer: D

Explanation:
Identification is the first step in the incident response process, which involves recognizing that an incident has occurred. Containment is the second step, followed by eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 10: Incident Response and Recovery, pp. 437-441.

NEW QUESTION 2

An incident has occurred in the production environment.
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Command Output1 = Logic Bomb
A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that executes when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date or time, or a specific user action1. In this case, the logic bomb is a script that runs every minute and checks if there is a user named john in the /etc/password file. If there is, it drops the production database using a MySQL command3. This could cause severe damage to the system and the data.
To prevent logic bombs, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also perform regular backups of your data. You should also avoid opening suspicious attachments or links from unknown sources, and use strong passwords for your accounts1.
Command Output2 = backdoorA backdoor is a type of malicious code that allows an attacker to access a system or network remotely, bypassing security measures1. In this case, the backdoor is a script that runs every time the date command is executed and prompts the user to enter their full name. Then, it opens a reverse shell connection using the nc command and downloads a virus file from a malicious website using the wget command2. This could allow the attacker to execute commands on the system and infect it with malware.
To prevent backdoors, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also update your system and applications regularly. You should also avoid executing unknown commands or scripts from untrusted sources, and use firewall rules to block unauthorized connections

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

A company wants to modify its current backup strategy to modify its current backup strategy to minimize the number of backups that would need to be restored in case of data loss. Which of the following would be the BEST backup strategy

  • A. Incremental backups followed by differential backups
  • B. Full backups followed by incremental backups
  • C. Delta backups followed by differential backups
  • D. Incremental backups followed by delta backups
  • E. Full backup followed by different backups

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best backup strategy for minimizing the number of backups that need to be restored in case of data loss is full backups followed by incremental backups. This strategy allows for a complete restoration of data by restoring the most recent full backup followed by the most recent incremental backup. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Third Edition (Exam SY0-601) page 126

NEW QUESTION 4

A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

  • A. A RAT
  • B. Ransomware
  • C. Polymophic
  • D. A worm

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer.

NEW QUESTION 5

A company recently experienced a major breach. An investigation concludes that customer credit card data was stolen and exfiltrated through a dedicated business partner connection to a vendor, who is not held to the same security contral standards. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the breach?

  • A. Side channel
  • B. Supply chain
  • C. Cryptographic downgrade
  • D. Malware

Answer: B

Explanation:
A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.

NEW QUESTION 6

A cyber security administrator is using iptables as an enterprise firewall. The administrator created some rules, but the network now seems to be unresponsive. All connections are being dropped by the firewall Which of the following would be the best option to remove the rules?

  • A. # iptables -t mangle -X
  • B. # iptables -F
  • C. # iptables -2
  • D. # iptables -P INPUT -j DROP

Answer: B

Explanation:
iptables is a command-line tool that allows an administrator to configure firewall rules for a Linux system. The -F option flushes or deletes all the existing rules in the selected chain or in all chains if none is given. It can be used to remove the rules that caused the network to be unresponsive and restore the default firewall behavior.

NEW QUESTION 7

An organization's Chief Information Security Officer is creating a position that will be responsible for implementing technical controls to protect data, including ensuring backups are properly maintained. Which of the following roles would MOST likely include these responsibilities?

  • A. Data protection officer
  • B. Data owner
  • C. Backup administrator
  • D. Data custodian
  • E. Internal auditor

Answer: D

Explanation:
The responsibilities of ensuring backups are properly maintained and implementing technical controls to protect data are the responsibilities of the data custodian role. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 7: Securing Hosts and Data, Data Custodian

NEW QUESTION 8

A security administrator would like to ensure all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. Which of the following concepts should the administrator utilize?

  • A. Provisioning
  • B. Staging
  • C. Development
  • D. Quality assurance

Answer: A

Explanation:
Provisioning is the process of creating and setting up IT infrastructure, and includes the steps required to manage user and system access to various resources . Provisioning can be done for servers, cloud environments, users, networks, services, and more .
In this case, the security administrator wants to ensure that all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. This means that the administrator needs to
provision the cloud servers with the necessary software and configuration before they are deployed or used by customers or end users. Provisioning can help automate and standardize the process of setting up cloud servers and reduce the risk of human errors or inconsistencies.

NEW QUESTION 9

Security engineers are working on digital certificate management with the top priority of making administration easier. Which of the following certificates is the best option?

  • A. User
  • B. Wildcard
  • C. Self-signed
  • D. Root

Answer: B

Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a type of digital certificate that can be used to secure multiple subdomains under a single domain name. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.example.com can be used to secure www.example.com, mail.example.com, blog.example.com, etc. A wildcard certificate can make administration easier by reducing the number of certificates that need to be issued, managed, and renewed. It can also save costs and simplify configuration.

NEW QUESTION 10

A company is launching a website in a different country in order to capture user information that a marketing business can use. The company itself will not be using the information. Which of the following roles is the company assuming?

  • A. Data owner
  • B. Data processor
  • C. Data steward
  • D. Data collector

Answer: D

Explanation:
A data collector is a person or entity that collects personal data from individuals for a specific purpose. A data collector may or may not be the same as the data controller or the data processor, depending on who determines the purpose and means of processing the data and who actually processes the data.

NEW QUESTION 11

A manager for the development team is concerned about reports showing a common set of vulnerabilities. The set of vulnerabilities is present on almost all of the applications developed by the team. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for the manager to use to address this issue?

  • A. Tune the accuracy of fuzz testing.
  • B. Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines.
  • C. Increase the frequency of dynamic code scans 1o detect issues faster.
  • D. Implement code signing to make code immutable.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of
vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9,
Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0:
Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

NEW QUESTION 12

A company owns a public-facing e-commerce website. The company outsources credit card transactions to a payment company. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the payment company?

  • A. Data controller
  • B. Data custodian
  • C. Data owners
  • D. Data processor

Answer: D

Explanation:
A data processor is an organization that processes personal data on behalf of a data controller. In this scenario, the company that owns the e-commerce website is the data controller, as it determines the purposes and means of processing personal data (e.g. credit card information). The payment company is a data processor, as it processes personal data on behalf of the e-commerce company (i.e. it processes credit card transactions).
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom

NEW QUESTION 13

A security analyst is investigating a report from a penetration test. During the penetration test, consultants were able to download sensitive data from a back-end server. The back-end server was exposing an API that should have only been available from the company’s mobile application. After reviewing the back-end server logs, the security analyst finds the following entries:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the security control bypass?

  • A. IP address allow list
  • B. User-agent spoofing
  • C. WAF bypass
  • D. Referrer manipulation

Answer: B

Explanation:
User-agent spoofing is a technique that involves changing the user-agent string of a web browser or other client to impersonate another browser or device. The user-agent string is a piece of information that identifies the client to the web server and can contain details such as the browser name, version, operating system, and device type. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on the user-agent string to determine the legitimacy of a request. In this scenario, the consultants were able to spoof the user-agent string of the company’s mobile application and access the API that should have been restricted to it.

NEW QUESTION 14

A company needs to enhance Its ability to maintain a scalable cloud Infrastructure. The Infrastructure needs to handle the unpredictable loads on the company's web application. Which of the following
cloud concepts would BEST these requirements?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. VDI
  • C. Containers
  • D. Microservices

Answer: C

Explanation:
Containers are a type of virtualization technology that allow applications to run in a secure, isolated environment on a single host. They can be quickly scaled up or down as needed, making them an ideal solution for unpredictable loads. Additionally, containers are designed to be lightweight and portable, so they can easily be moved from one host to another. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Sy0-601 official Text book, page 863.

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following allow access to remote computing resources, a operating system. and centrdized configuration and data

  • A. Containers
  • B. Edge computing
  • C. Thin client
  • D. Infrastructure as a service

Answer: C

Explanation:
Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.

NEW QUESTION 16

An administrator is configuring a firewall rule set for a subnet to only access DHCP, web pages, and SFTP, and to specifically block FTP. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?

  • A. [Permission Source Destination Port]Allow: Any Any 80 -Allow: Any Any 443 -Allow: Any Any 67-Allow: Any Any 68 -Allow: Any Any 22 -Deny: Any Any 21 -Deny: Any Any
  • B. [Permission Source Destination Port]Allow: Any Any 80 -Allow: Any Any 443 -Allow: Any Any 67-Allow: Any Any 68 -Deny: Any Any 22 -Allow: Any Any 21 -Deny: Any Any
  • C. [Permission Source Destination Port]Allow: Any Any 80 -Allow: Any Any 443 -Allow: Any Any 22-Deny: Any Any 67 -Deny: Any Any 68 -Deny: Any Any 21 -Allow: Any Any
  • D. [Permission Source Destination Port]Allow: Any Any 80 -Allow: Any Any 443 -Deny: Any Any 67-Allow: Any Any 68 -Allow: Any Any 22 -Allow: Any Any 21 -Allow: Any Any

Answer: A

Explanation:
This firewall rule set allows a subnet to only access DHCP, web pages, and SFTP, and specifically blocks FTP by allowing or denying traffic based on the source, destination, and port. The rule set is as follows:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Allow any source and any destination on port 80 (HTTP)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Allow any source and any destination on port 443 (HTTPS)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Allow any source and any destination on port 67 (DHCP server)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Allow any source and any destination on port 68 (DHCP client)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Allow any source and any destination on port 22 (SFTP)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Deny any source and any destination on port 21 (FTP)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Deny any source and any destination on any other port

NEW QUESTION 17

A third party asked a user to share a public key for secure communication. Which of the following file formats should the user choose to share the key?

  • A. .pfx
  • B. .csr
  • C. .pvk
  • D. .cer

Answer: D

Explanation:
A user should choose the .cer file format to share a public key for secure communication. A .cer file is a public key certificate that can be shared with third parties to enable secure communication.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Cryptography, pp. 301-302.
A public key is a cryptographic key that can be used to encrypt or verify data. A public key file is a file that contains one or more public keys in a specific format.
There are different formats for public key files, depending on the application and the algorithm used. Some of the common formats are:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit .pfx: This is a file format that stores a certificate and its private and public keys. It is also known as PKCS#12 or Personal Information Exchange. It is used by some applications such as Microsoft Internet Explorer and Outlook to import and export certificates and keys.1
SY0-701 dumps exhibit .csr: This is a file format that stores a Certificate Signing Request, which is a message sent to a Certificate Authority (CA) to request a digital certificate. It contains the public key and some information about the identity of the requester. It is also known as PKCS#10 or Certification Request Syntax.2
SY0-701 dumps exhibit .pvk: This is a file format that stores a private key for Microsoft Authenticode code signing. It is used with a .spc file that contains the certificate and public key.3
SY0-701 dumps exhibit .cer: This is a file format that stores a certificate, which is a document that binds a public key to an identity. It is also known as DER or Distinguished Encoding Rules. It is used by some applications such as OpenSSL and Java to read and write certificates.4

NEW QUESTION 18

An organization wants to secure a LAN/WLAN so users can authenticate and transport data securely. The solution needs to prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks. Which of the following will best meet the organization's need?

  • A. MFA
  • B. 802.1X
  • C. WPA2
  • D. TACACS

Answer: B

Explanation:
* 802.1 X is a standard for network access control that provides authentication and encryption for devices that connect to a LAN/WLAN. 802.1X uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to exchange authentication messages between a supplicant (the device requesting access), an authenticator (the device granting access), and an authentication server (the device verifying credentials). 802.1X can prevent on-path attacks and evil twin attacks by requiring users to provide valid credentials before accessing the network and encrypting the data transmitted over the network.
On-path attacks are attacks that involve intercepting or modifying network traffic between two endpoints. An on-path attacker can eavesdrop on sensitive information, alter or inject malicious data, or redirect traffic to malicious destinations. On-path attacks are frequently perpetrated over WiFi network1s.
Evil twin attacks are attacks that involve setting up a fake WiFi access point that mimics a legitimate one. An evil twin attacker can trick users into connecting to the fake network and then monitor or manipulate their online activity. Evil twin attacks are more common on public WiFi networks that are unsecured and leave personal data vulnerable23.

NEW QUESTION 19

A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?

  • A. Accept
  • B. Transfer
  • C. Mitigate
  • D. Avoid

Answer: B

Explanation:
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. This represents a transfer strategy. A transfer strategy involves transferring or sharing some or all of the responsibility or impact of a risk to another party, such as an insurer, a supplier, or a partner. A transfer strategy can help to reduce the financial liability or exposure of the company in case of a security incident or breach. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cyber-insurance
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 20

A company that provides an online streaming service made its customers' personal data including names and email addresses publicly available in a cloud storage service. As a result, the company experienced an increase m the number of requests to delete user accounts. Which of the following best describes the consequence of tins data disclosure?

  • A. Regulatory tines
  • B. Reputation damage
  • C. Increased insurance costs
  • D. Financial loss

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reputation damage Short
Reputation damage is the loss of trust or credibility that a company suffers when its customers’ personal data is exposed or breached. This can lead to customer dissatisfaction, loss of loyalty, and requests to delete user accounts. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-cybersecurity

NEW QUESTION 21
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