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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following can be used by an authentication application to validate a user's credentials without the need to store the actual sensitive data?

  • A. Salt string
  • B. Private Key
  • C. Password hash
  • D. Cipher stream

Answer: C

Explanation:
Password hash is a method of storing a user’s credentials without the need to store the actual sensitive data. A password hash is a one-way function that transforms the user’s password into a fixed-length string of characters that cannot be reversed. The authentication application can then compare the password hash with the stored hash to validate the user’s credentials without revealing the original password. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.5:
Implement secure authentication mechanisms 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16,
Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.6: Implement identity and account management best practices 3
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-password-hashing

NEW QUESTION 2

An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year. Over the last five years, the number of devices that were replaced due to loss, damage, or theft steadily increased by 10%. Which of the following would best describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?

  • A. SLA
  • B. ARO
  • C. RPO
  • D. SLE

Answer: B

Explanation:
ARO stands for annualized rate of occurrence, which is a metric that estimates how often a threat event will occur within a year. ARO can help an IT manager estimate the mobile device budget for the upcoming year by multiplying the number of devices replaced in the previous year by the percentage increase of replacement over the last five years. For example, if 100 devices were replaced in the previous year and the replacement rate increased by 10% each year for the last five years, then the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year is 100 x (1 + 0.1)^5 = 161.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24866/annualized-rate-of-occurrence-aro

NEW QUESTION 3

A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled. Which of the following should the company consult?

  • A. GDPR
  • B. ISO
  • C. NIST
  • D. PCI DSS

Answer: A

Explanation:
GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regula

NEW QUESTION 4

While troubleshooting a service disruption on a mission-critical server, a technician discovered the user account that was configured to run automated processes was disabled because the user's password failed to meet password complexity requirements. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to securely prevent future issues?

  • A. Using an administrator account to run the processes and disabling the account when it is not in use
  • B. Implementing a shared account the team can use to run automated processes
  • C. Configuring a service account to run the processes
  • D. Removing the password complexity requirements for the user account

Answer: C

Explanation:
A service account is a user account that is created specifically to run automated processes and services. These accounts are typically not associated with an individual user, and are used for running background services and scheduled tasks. By configuring a service account to run the automated processes, you can ensure that the account will not be disabled due to password complexity requirements and other user-related issues.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom

NEW QUESTION 5

An employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm employee's identity before sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?

  • A. Spear phishing
  • B. Whaling
  • C. Phishing
  • D. Vishing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that uses fraudulent emails or other forms of communication to trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or personal details. Phishing emails often impersonate legitimate entities, such as banks, online services, or lottery organizations, and entice users to click on malicious links or attachments that lead to fake websites or malware downloads. Phishing emails usually target a large number of users indiscriminately, hoping that some of them will fall for the scam.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-phishing

NEW QUESTION 6

Unauthorized devices have been detected on the internal network. The devices’ locations were traced to Ether ports located in conference rooms. Which of the following would be the best technical controls to implement to prevent these devices from accessing the internal network?

  • A. NAC
  • B. DLP
  • C. IDS
  • D. MFA

Answer: A

Explanation:
NAC stands for network access control, which is a security solution that enforces policies and controls on devices that attempt to access a network. NAC can help prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the internal network by verifying their identity, compliance, and security posture before granting them access. NAC can also monitor and restrict the activities of authorized devices based on predefined rules and roles.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-access-control-nac.html

NEW QUESTION 7

A network security manager wants to implement periodic events that will test the security team's preparedness for incidents in a controlled and scripted manner, Which of the following concepts describes this scenario?

  • A. Red-team exercise
  • B. Business continuity plan testing
  • C. Tabletop exercise
  • D. Functional exercise

Answer: C

Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of security exercise that involves a simulated scenario of a security incident and a discussion of how the security team would respond to it1. A tabletop exercise is a low-impact and
cost-effective way to test the security team’s preparedness, identify gaps and areas for improvement, and
enhance communication and coordination among team members2. A tabletop exercise is different from a red-team exercise, which is a simulated attack by an authorized group of ethical hackers to test the security defenses and response capabilities of an organization3. A business continuity plan testing is a process of verifying that an organization can continue its essential functions and operations in the event of a disaster or disruption4. A functional exercise is a type of security exercise that involves a realistic simulation of a security incident and requires the security team to perform their roles and responsibilities as if it were a real event.
References: 1:
https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2022/volume-1/cybersecurity-incident-response-exercise-g
2: https://www.linuxjournal.com/content/security-exercises 3:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/red-team-blue-team/ 4: https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan : https://www.ready.gov/exercises

NEW QUESTION 8

A store receives reports that shoppers’ credit card information is being stolen. Upon further analysis, those same shoppers also withdrew money from an ATM in that store.
The attackers are using the targeted shoppers’ credit card information to make online purchases. Which of the following attacks is the MOST probable cause?

  • A. Identity theft
  • B. RFID cloning
  • C. Shoulder surfing
  • D. Card skimming

Answer: D

Explanation:
The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 9

A retail store has a business requirement to deploy a kiosk computer In an open area The kiosk computer's operating system has been hardened and tested. A security engineer IS concerned that someone could use removable media to install a rootkit Mich of the should the security engineer configure to BEST protect the kiosk computer?

  • A. Measured boot
  • B. Boot attestation
  • C. UEFI
  • D. EDR

Answer: B

Explanation:
Boot attestation is a security feature that enables the computer to verify the integrity of its operating system
before it boots. It does this by performing a hash of the operating system and comparing it to the expected hash of the operating system. If the hashes do not match, the computer will not boot and the rootkit will not be allowed to run. This process is also known as measured boot or secure boot.
According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “Secure Boot is a feature of Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) that ensures that code that is executed during the boot process has been authenticated by a cryptographic signature. Secure Boot prevents malicious code from running at boot time, thus providing assurance that the system is executing only code that is legitimate. This provides a measure of protection against rootkits and other malicious code that is designed to run at boot time.”

NEW QUESTION 10

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating (he dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system tor the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls mat apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate Hie environment for this new ERP system?

  • A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
  • B. CIS Critical Security Controls
  • C. NIST Risk Management Framevtoik
  • D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

NEW QUESTION 11

An upcoming project focuses on secure communications and trust between external parties. Which of the following security components will need to be considered to ensure a chosen trust provider IS used and the selected option is highly scalable?

  • A. Self-signed certificate
  • B. Certificate attributes
  • C. Public key Infrastructure
  • D. Domain validation

Answer: C

Explanation:
PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties.
According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

NEW QUESTION 12

When planning to build a virtual environment, an administrator need to achieve the following,
•Establish polices in Limit who can create new VMs
•Allocate resources according to actual utilization‘
•Require justication for requests outside of the standard requirements.
•Create standardized categories based on size and resource requirements Which of the following is the administrator MOST likely trying to do?

  • A. Implement IaaS replication
  • B. Product against VM escape
  • C. Deploy a PaaS
  • D. Avoid VM sprawl

Answer: D

Explanation:
The administrator is most likely trying to avoid VM sprawl, which occurs when too many VMs are created and managed poorly, leading to resource waste and increased security risks. The listed actions can help establish policies, resource allocation, and categorization to prevent unnecessary VM creation and ensure proper management. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.6 Given a scenario, implement the appropriate virtualization components.

NEW QUESTION 13

A security administrator is setting up a SIEM to help monitor for notable events across the enterprise. Which of the following control types does this BEST represent?

  • A. Preventive
  • B. Compensating
  • C. Corrective
  • D. Detective

Answer: D

Explanation:
A SIEM is a security solution that helps detect security incidents by monitoring for notable events across the enterprise. A detective control is a control that is designed to detect security incidents and respond to them. Therefore, a SIEM represents a detective control.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design

NEW QUESTION 14

A company uses a drone for precise perimeter and boundary monitoring. Which of the following should be MOST concerning to the company?

  • A. Privacy
  • B. Cloud storage of telemetry data
  • C. GPS spoofing
  • D. Weather events

Answer: A

Explanation:
The use of a drone for perimeter and boundary monitoring can raise privacy concerns, as it may capture video and images of individuals on or near the monitored premises. The company should take measures to ensure that privacy rights are not violated. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 8

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?

  • A. Compensating control
  • B. Network segmentation
  • C. Transfer of risk
  • D. SNMP traps

Answer: A

Explanation:
A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-co

NEW QUESTION 16

An organization discovered a disgruntled employee exfiltrated a large amount of PII data by uploading files Which of the following controls should the organization consider to mitigate this risk?

  • A. EDR
  • B. Firewall
  • C. HIPS
  • D. DLP

Answer: D

Explanation:
DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, print, email, upload, or download sensitive data based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/data-loss-prevention-dlp

NEW QUESTION 17

A network manager is concerned that business may be negatively impacted if the firewall in its data center goes offline. The manager would like to implement a high availability pair to:

  • A. decrease the mean time between failures.
  • B. remove the single point of failure.
  • C. cut down the mean time to repair
  • D. reduce the recovery time objective

Answer: B

Explanation:
A single point of failure is a component or element of a system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to fail or stop functioning. It can pose a high risk and impact for business continuity and availability. A high availability pair is a configuration that involves two identical devices or systems that operate in parallel and provide redundancy and failover capabilities. It can remove the single point of failure by ensuring that if one device or system fails, the other one can take over its functions without interruption or downtime.

NEW QUESTION 18

During an incident a company CIRT determine it is necessary to observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes?

  • A. Physical move the PC to a separate internet pint of presence
  • B. Create and apply micro segmentation rules.
  • C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DM Z segment.
  • D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain

Answer: C

Explanation:
To observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes, the best technique to use is to emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment. This is a secure environment that is isolated from the rest of the network and can be heavily monitored to detect any suspicious activity. By emulating the malware in this environment, the activity can be observed without the risk of lateral spread or detection by the adversary. References:
https://www.sans.org/blog/incident-response-fundamentals-why-is-the-dmz-so-important/

NEW QUESTION 19

A building manager is concerned about people going in and out of the office during non-working hours. Which of the following physical security controls would provide the best solution?

  • A. Cameras
  • B. Badges
  • C. Locks
  • D. Bollards

Answer: B

Explanation:
Badges are physical security controls that provide a way to identify and authenticate authorized individuals
who need to access a building or a restricted area. Badges can also be used to track the entry and exit times of people and monitor their movements within the premises. Badges can help deter unauthorized access by requiring people to present a valid credential before entering or leaving the office. Badges can also help prevent tailgating, which is when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a door or gate. Badges can be integrated with other security systems, such as locks, alarms, cameras, or biometrics, to enhance the level of protection.

NEW QUESTION 20

Server administrators want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage are maximized most efficiently across a number of virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential
denial-of-service situations caused by availability. Which of the following should administrators configure to maximize system availability while efficiently utilizing available computing power?

  • A. Dynamic resource allocation
  • B. High availability
  • C. Segmentation
  • D. Container security

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows cloud providers to adjust the amount and distribution of computing resources according to the changing demand and capacity of the cloud environment1. Dynamic resource allocation can improve the efficiency and utilization of available computing power, as well as reduce the cost and energy consumption of the cloud infrastructure1. Dynamic resource allocation can also enhance the system availability and reliability by avoiding potential denial-of-service situations caused by overloading or under-provisioning of resources1.

NEW QUESTION 21
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