Exam Code: SY0-701 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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NEW QUESTION 1

A company is developing a business continuity strategy and needs to determine how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption.
Which of the following best describes this step?

  • A. Capacity planning
  • B. Redundancy
  • C. Geographic dispersion
  • D. Tabletop exercise

Answer: A

Explanation:
Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the demand for a service or product. It involves estimating the number of staff members required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, as well as other factors such as equipment, space, and budget12.
Redundancy, geographic dispersion, and tabletop exercise are not directly related to determining the staff members needed for business continuity. Redundancy is the duplication of critical components or functions to increase reliability and availability2. Geographic dispersion is the distribution of resources across different locations to reduce the impact of a localized disaster2. Tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential scenario that tests the effectiveness of a business continuity plan

NEW QUESTION 2

A company would like to provide flexibility for employees on device preference. However, the company is concerned about supporting too many different types of hardware. Which of the following deployment models will provide the needed flexibility with the GREATEST amount of control and security over company data and infrastructure?

  • A. BYOD
  • B. VDI
  • C. COPE
  • D. CYOD

Answer: D

Explanation:
Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following best describes the situation where a successfully onboarded employee who is using a fingerprint reader is denied access at the company's mam gate?

  • A. Crossover error rate
  • B. False match raw
  • C. False rejection
  • D. False positive

Answer: C

Explanation:
False rejection Short
A false rejection occurs when a biometric system fails to recognize an authorized user and denies access. This can happen due to poor quality of the biometric sample, environmental factors, or system errors. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-biometrics

NEW QUESTION 4

A data owner has been tasked with assigning proper data classifications and destruction methods for various types of data contained within the environment.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

A security engineer is concerned the strategy for detection on endpoints is too heavily dependent on previously defined attacks. The engineer wants a tool that can monitor for changes to key files and network traffic for the device. Which of the following tools should the engineer select?

  • A. HIDS
  • B. AV
  • C. NGF-W
  • D. DLP

Answer: A

Explanation:
The security engineer should select a Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) to address the concern. HIDS monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system, such as key files and network traffic, for any suspicious activity. Unlike antivirus software (AV), which relies on known signatures of malware, HIDS can detect anomalies, policy violations, and previously undefined attacks by monitoring system behavior and the network traffic of the device.
References:
* 1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf
* 2. Scarfone, K., & Mell, P. (2007). Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS): Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology. NIST Special Publication 800-94. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-94.pdf

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?

  • A. Red
  • B. Blue
  • C. Purple
  • D. Yellow

Answer: C

Explanation:
A purple team combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. A purple team is a type of cybersecurity team that consists of members from both the red team and the blue team. The red team performs simulated attacks on the organization’s systems, while the blue team defends against them. The purple team facilitates the collaboration and communication between the red team and the blue team, and provides feedback and recommendations for improvement. A purple team can help the organization identify and remediate vulnerabilities, enhance security controls, and increase resilience.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/red-team-blue-team-purple-team
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 7

A security analyst is investigating a phishing email that contains a malicious document directed to the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO). Which of the following should the analyst perform to understand the threat and retrieve possible IoCs?

  • A. Run a vulnerability scan against the CEOs computer to find possible vulnerabilities
  • B. Install a sandbox to run the malicious payload in a safe environment
  • C. Perform a traceroute to identify the communication path
  • D. Use netstat to check whether communication has been made with a remote host

Answer: B

Explanation:
To understand the threat and retrieve possible Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) from a phishing email containing a malicious document, a security analyst should install a sandbox to run the malicious payload in a safe environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 209.

NEW QUESTION 8

Two organizations are discussing a possible merger Both Organizations Chief Fi-nancial Officers would like to safely share payroll data with each Other to de-termine if the pay scales for different roles are similar at both organizations Which Of the following techniques would be best to protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information?

  • A. Pseudo-anonymization
  • B. Tokenization
  • C. Data masking
  • D. Encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Pseudo-anonymization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms that preserve some characteristics or attributes of the original data. It can protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information by removing direct identifiers such as names, addresses, etc., but retaining indirect identifiers such as job roles, pay scales, etc., that are relevant for the comparison.

NEW QUESTION 9

An organization is outlining data stewardship roles and responsibilities. Which of the following employee roles would determine the purpose of data and how to process it?

  • A. Data custodian
  • B. Data controller
  • C. Data protection officer
  • D. Data processor

Answer: B

Explanation:
A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 10

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization would like staff members to have the flexibility to work from home anytime during business hours, including during a pandemic or crisis. However, the CEO is concerned that some staff members may take advantage of the flexibility and work from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsource work to a third-party organization in another country. The Chief Information Officer believes the company can implement some basic controls to mitigate the majority of the risk. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the CEO's concerns? (Select two).

  • A. Geolocation
  • B. Time-of-day restrictions
  • C. Certificates
  • D. Tokens
  • E. Geotagging
  • F. Role-based access controls

Answer: AB

Explanation:
Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions would be best to mitigate the CEO’s concerns about staff members working from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsourcing work to a third-party organization in another country. Geolocation is a technique that involves determining the physical location of a device or user based on its IP address, GPS coordinates, Wi-Fi signals, or other indicators. Time-of-day restrictions are policies that limit the access or usage of resources based on the time of day or week. Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions can help to enforce access control rules, prevent unauthorized access, detect anomalous behavior, and comply with regulations. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-geolocation
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 11

A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?

  • A. DLP
  • B. SIEM
  • C. NIDS
  • D. WAF

Answer: D

Explanation:
WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as
cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram
https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)

NEW QUESTION 12

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system. Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?

  • A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
  • B. CIS Critical Security Controls
  • C. NIST Risk Management Framework
  • D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

NEW QUESTION 13

A security administrator Is evaluating remote access solutions for employees who are geographically dispersed. Which of the following would provide the MOST secure remote access? (Select TWO).

  • A. IPSec
  • B. SFTP
  • C. SRTP
  • D. LDAPS
  • E. S/MIME
  • F. SSL VPN

Answer: AF

Explanation:
IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a technology that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting traffic and authenticating it at both the sender and receiver. It can be used to create secure tunnels between two or more devices, allowing users to access resources securely and privately.
SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network) is a type of VPN that uses an SSL/TLS connection to encrypt traffic between two or more devices. It is a secure and reliable solution for providing remote access, as all traffic is encrypted and authenticated. Additionally, SSL VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, making them a secure and robust solution for remote access.

NEW QUESTION 14

A security administrator examines the ARP table of an access switch and sees the following output:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following is a potential threat that is occurring on this access switch?

  • A. DDoSonFa02 port
  • B. MAG flooding on Fa0/2 port
  • C. ARP poisoning on Fa0/1 port
  • D. DNS poisoning on port Fa0/1

Answer: C

Explanation:
ARP poisoning is a type of attack that exploits the ARP protocol to associate a malicious MAC address with a legitimate IP address on a network1. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify or drop traffic between the victim and other hosts on the same network. In this case, the ARP table of the access switch shows that the same MAC address (00-0c-29-58-35-3b) is associated with two different IP addresses (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) on port Fa0/12. This indicates that an attacker has poisoned the ARP table to redirect traffic intended for 192.168.1.100 to their own device with MAC address 00-0c-29-58-35-3b. The other options are not related to this scenario. DDoS is a type of attack that overwhelms a target with excessive traffic from multiple sources3. MAC flooding is a type of attack that floods a switch with fake MAC addresses to exhaust its MAC table and force it to operate as a hub4. DNS poisoning is a type of attack that corrupts the DNS cache with fake entries to redirect users to malicious websites.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/arp-spoofing/ 2:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-knowledge-base/network-tables-mac-routing-arp/ta-p/4184148 3:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/ddos-attack/ 4: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/mac-flooding/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dns-spoofing-poisoning/

NEW QUESTION 15

As part of the building process for a web application, the compliance team requires that all PKI certificates are rotated annually and can only contain wildcards at the secondary subdomain level. Which of the following certificate properties will meet these requirements?

  • A. HTTPS://*.comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2022
  • B. HTTPS://app1.comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2022
  • C. HTTPS://*.app1.comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2022
  • D. HTTPS://".comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2023

Answer: C

Explanation:
This certificate property will meet the requirements because it has a wildcard at the secondary subdomain level (.app1.comptia.org), which means it can be used for any subdomain under app1.comptia.org, such as test.app1.comptia.org or dev.app1.comptia.org. It also has a validity period of less than one year, which means it will need to be rotated annually. The other options do not meet the requirements because they either have a wildcard at the primary domain level (.comptia.org), which is not allowed, or they have a validity period of more than one year, which is too long.

NEW QUESTION 16

Per company security policy, IT staff members are required to have separate credentials to perform administrative functions using just-in-time permissions. Which of the following solutions is the company Implementing?

  • A. Privileged access management
  • B. SSO
  • C. RADIUS
  • D. Attribute-based access control

Answer: A

Explanation:
The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following should a Chief Information Security Officer consider using to take advantage of industry standard guidelines?

  • A. SSAE SOC 2
  • B. GDPR
  • C. PCI DSS
  • D. NIST CSF

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and
Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework

NEW QUESTION 18

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

  • A. Race condition testing
  • B. Proper error handling
  • C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
  • D. Input sanitization

Answer: D

Explanation:
Input sanitization can help prevent attackers from learning the service account name by removing potentially harmful characters from user input, reducing the likelihood of successful injection attacks. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2.2: Given a scenario, implement secure coding techniques.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 72-73

NEW QUESTION 19

A help desk technician receives a phone call from someone claiming to be a part of the organization's cybersecurity incident response team. The caller asks the technician to verify the network's internal firewall IP address. Which of the following is the technician's best course of action?

  • A. Direct the caller to stop by the help desk in person and hang up declining any further requests from the caller.
  • B. Ask for the caller's name, verify the person's identity in the email directory, and provide the requested information over the phone.
  • C. Write down the phone number of the caller if possible, the name of the person requesting the information, hang up, and notify the organization's cybersecurity officer.
  • D. Request the caller send an email for identity verification and provide the requested information via email to the caller.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the best course of action for the help desk technician because it can help prevent a potential social engineering attack. Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. The caller may be impersonating a member of the organization’s cybersecurity incident response team to obtain the network’s internal firewall IP address, which could be used for further attacks. The help desk technician should not provide any information over the phone without verifying the caller’s identity and authorization. The help desk technician should also report the incident to the organization’s cybersecurity officer for investigation and response. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/social-engineering-explained
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 20

Remote workers in an organization use company-provided laptops with locally installed applications and locally stored data Users can store data on a remote server using an encrypted connection. The organization discovered data stored on a laptop had been made available to the public Which of the following security solutions would mitigate the risk of future data disclosures?

  • A. FDE
  • B. TPM
  • C. HIDS
  • D. VPN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on these definitions, the best security solution to mitigate the risk of future data disclosures from a laptop would be FDE123. FDE would prevent unauthorized access to the data stored on the laptop even if it is stolen or lost. FDE can also use TPM to store the encryption key and ensure that only trusted software can decrypt the data3. HIDS and VPN are not directly related to data encryption, but they can provide additional security benefits by detecting intrusions and protecting network traffic respectively.

NEW QUESTION 21
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