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Q31. Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration reduces CPU utilization on R2 while still advertising the connected routes of R2 to R1?
A. Configure eigrp stub connected on R2.
B. Configure eigrp stub receive-only on R1.
C. Configure eigrp stub static on R2.
D. Configure eigrp stub summary on R1.
Answer: A
Q32. Refer to the exhibit.
What kind of load balancing is done on this router?
A. per-packet load balancing
B. per-flow load balancing
C. per-label load balancing
D. star round-robin load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here we can see that for the same traffic source/destination pair of 10.0.0.1 to 14.0.0.2 there were a total of 100 packets (shown by second entry without the *) and that the packets were distributed evenly across the three different outgoing interfaces (34, 33, 33 packets, respectively.
Q33. On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?
A. The next hop address is unknown.
B. The next hop address is a site-local address.
C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.
D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.
E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network.
Answer: E
Q34. Now that we’ve generated the key, our next step would be to configure our vty lines for SSH access and specify which database we are going to use to provide authentication to the device. The local database on the router will do just fine for this example.
LabRouter(config)#line vty 0 4
LabRouter(config-line)#login local
LabRouter(config-line)#transport input ssh
5. You will need to create an account on the local router’s database to be used for authenticating to the device. This can be accomplished with these commands. LabRouter(config)#username XXXX privilege 15 secret XXXX
Reference: http://blog.pluralsight.com/configure-secure-shell-ssh-on-cisco-router
Q35. Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.)
A. Option Class
B. GET
C. Copied
D. PUSH
E. Option Number
F. TTL
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data.
Reference: http://www.tcpipguide.com/free/t_IPDatagramOptionsandOptionFormat.htm
Q36. Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header.
B. The command configures an SPI.
C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV.
D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm.
E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3 process.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
OSPFv3 requires the use of IPsec to enable authentication. Crypto images are required to use authentication, because only crypto images include the IPsec API needed for use with OSPFv3. In OSPFv3, authentication fields have been removed from OSPFv3 packet headers. When OSPFv3 runs on IPv6, OSPFv3 requires the IPv6 authentication header (AH) or IPv6 ESP header to ensure integrity, authentication, and confidentiality of routing exchanges. IPv6 AH and ESP extension headers can be used to provide authentication and confidentiality to OSPFv3. To use the IPsec AH, you must enable the ipv6 ospf authentication command. To use the IPsec ESP header, you must enable the ipv6 ospf encryption command. The ESP header may be applied alone or in combination with the AH, and when ESP is used, both encryption and authentication are provided. Security services can be provided between a pair of communicating hosts, between a pair of communicating security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. To configure IPsec, you configure a security policy, which is a combination of the security policy index (SPI) and the key (the key is used to create and validate the hash value). IPsec for OSPFv3 can be configured on an interface or on an OSPFv3 area. For higher security, you should configure a different policy on each interface configured with IPsec. If you configure IPsec for an OSPFv3 area, the policy is applied to all of the interfaces in that area, except for the interfaces that have IPsec configured directly. Once IPsec is configured for OSPFv3, IPsec is invisible to you.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15-sy/iro-15-sy-book/ip6-route-ospfv3-auth-ipsec.html
Q37. Which two statements about RSTP and MSTP BPDUs are true? (Choose two.)
A. MSTP switches can detect boundary ports when they receive RSTP version 2 BPDUs.
B. MSTP switches can detect boundary ports when they receive RSTP version 1 BPDUs.
C. RSTP switches can process MSTP version 3 BPDUs.
D. When all boundary switches are running RSTP, MST sends only version 0 configuration BPDUs.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A switch running both MSTP and RSTP supports a built-in protocol migration mechanism that enables it to interoperate with legacy 802.1D switches. If this switch receives a legacy 802.1D configuration BPDU (a BPDU with the protocol version set to 0), it sends only 802.1D BPDUs on that port. An MST switch can also detect that a port is at the boundary of a region when it receives a legacy BPDU, an MST BPDU (version 3) associated with a different region, or an RST BPDU (version 2).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-1_9_ea1/configuration/guide/scg/swmstp.html
Q38. Which Layer 2 tunneling technique eliminates the need for pseudowires?
A. OTV
B. L2TPv3
C. AToM
D. VPLS
Answer: A
Q39. What is the VLAN ID range of VLANs that are eligible for pruning?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1005
C. 1 through 4096
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: A
Q40. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about this egress queue are true? (Choose two.)
A. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 20 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 400 percent of memory.
B. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory.
C. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 150 percent of memory.
D. The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
E. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
Answer: B,D