we provide Practical Cisco cisco 400 101 exam price which are the best for clearing passleader 400 101 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0). The ccie 400 101 dumps Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real ccie 400 101 exam. Crack your Cisco 400 101 dumps Exam with latest dumps, guaranteed!
♥♥ 2021 NEW RECOMMEND ♥♥
Free VCE & PDF File for Cisco 400-101 Real Exam (Full Version!)
★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW 400-101 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
http://www.surepassexam.com/400-101-exam-dumps.html
Q381. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NHRP flag on the left to the corresponding meaning on the right.
Answer:
Q382. Refer to the exhibit.
A tunnel is configured between R3 to R4 sourced with their loopback interfaces. The ip pim sparse-dense mode command is configured on the tunnel interfaces and multicast-routing is enabled on R3 and R4. The IP backbone is not configured for multicast routing.
The RPF check has failed toward the multicast source.
Which two conditions could have caused the failure? (Choose two.)
A. The route back to the RP is through a different interface than tunnel 0.
B. The backbone devices can only route unicast traffic.
C. The route back to the RP is through the same tunnel interface.
D. A static route that points the RP to GigabitEthernet1/0 is configured.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
.For a successful RPF verification of multicast traffic flowing over the shared tree (*,G) from RP, an ip mroute rp-address nexthop command needs to be configured for the RP address, that points to the tunnel interface.
A very similar scenario can be found at the reference link below:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-multicast/43584-mcast-over-gre.html
Q383. Which option is a core event publisher for EEM?
A. Timer
B. Policy Director
C. Applet
D. Script
Answer: A
Explanation:
EEM is a flexible, policy-driven framework that supports in-box monitoring of different components of the system with the help of software agents known as event detectors. The figure below shows the relationship between the EEM server, core event publishers (event detectors), and the event subscribers (policies). Basically, event publishers screen events and publish them when there is a match on an event specification that is provided by the event subscriber. Event detectors notify the EEM server when an event of interest occurs. The EEM policies that are configured using the Cisco command-line interface (CLI) then implement recovery on the basis of the current state of the system and the actions specified in the policy for the given event. EEM offers the ability to monitor events and take informational or corrective action when the monitored events occur or when a threshold is reached. An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script. An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. A script is a form of policy that is written in Tool Command Language (Tcl).
Figure 1. Embedded Event Manager Core Event Detectors
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/15-mt/eem-15-mt-book/eem-overview.html
Q384. What are two advantages to using Asynchronous mode instead of Demand mode for BFD? (Choose two.)
A. Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
B. Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function.
C. Asynchronous mode supports a larger number of BFD sessions.
D. Asynchronous mode requires one fourth as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
E. Asynchronous mode’s round-trip jitter is less than that of Demand mode.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Pure Asynchronous mode is advantageous in that it requires half as many packets to achieve a particular Detection Time as does the Echo function. It is also used when the Echo function cannot be supported for some reason.
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5880
Q385. Refer to the exhibit.
How can Router X in AS70000 peer with Router Y in AS65000, in case Router Y supports only 2-byte ASNs?
A. Router X should be configured with a remove-private-as command, because this will establish the peering session with a random private 2-byte ASN.
B. It is not possible. Router Y must be upgraded to an image that supports 4-byte ASN.
C. Router Y should be configured with a 4-byte AS using the local-as command.
D. Router X should be configured with a 2-byte AS using the local-as command.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since router Y does not support 4-byte ASN,s it will not understand any AS numbers larger than 65535, so router X should use the local-as command on the peering statement to router Y to so that it sends in a 2-byte ASN to router Y.
Q386. Which implementation can cause packet loss when the network includes asymmetric routing paths?
A. the use of ECMP routing
B. the use of penultimate hop popping
C. the use of Unicast RPF
D. disabling Cisco Express Forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router's choice for sending return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are present in the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/unicast-rpf.html
Q387. Which two statements about class maps are true? (Choose two.)
A. As many as eight DSCP values can be included in a match dscp statement.
B. The default parameter on a class map with more than one match command is match-any.
C. The match class command can nest a class map within another class map.
D. A policy map can be used to designate a protocol within a class map.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Answer A.
Router(config-cmap)# match [ip] dscp dscp-value [dscp-value dscp-value dscp-value
dscp-value dscp-value dscp-value dscp-value]
(Optional) Identifies a specific IP differentiated service code point (DSCP) value as a match criterion. Up to eight DSCP values can be included in one match statement.
Answer C.
Router config-cmap)# match class-map class-name (Optional) Specifies the name of a traffic class to be used as a matching criterion (for nesting traffic class [nested class maps] within one another).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfmcli2.html
Q388. Which statement is true about Fast Link Pulses in Ethernet?
A. They are used during collision detection.
B. They are used only if the media type is optical.
C. They are part of UniDirectional Link Detection.
D. They are used during autonegotiation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To make sure that your connection is operating properly, IEEE 802.3 Ethernet employs normal link pulses (NLPs), which are used for verifying link integrity in a 10BaseT system. This signaling gives you the link indication when you attach to the hub and is performed between two directly connected link interfaces (hub-to-station or station-to-station). NLPs are helpful in determining that a link has been established between devices, but they are not a good indicator that your cabling is free of problems. An extension of NLPs is fast link pulses. These do not perform link tests, but instead are employed in the autonegotiation process to advertise a device's capabilities.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1904.html
Q389. Which option is true about output policing for the control plane?
A. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to the control plane.
B. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent from the control plane.
C. It improves router performance by limiting traffic sent to and from the control plane.
D. It controls traffic originated from the router.
Answer: D
Q390. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true about the downward bit?
A. It forces the CE router to use a backup link instead of sending traffic via MPLS VPN.
B. It informs the PE router that the LSA metric has been recently decreased to 1 and that partial SPF calculation cannot be delayed.
C. It forces the CE router to install the LSA with the downward bit set into its routing table as a discard route.
D. It informs the PE router that the LSA was already redistributed into BGP by another PE router and that the LSA must not be redistributed into BGP again.
Answer: D
Explanation:
From RFC 4577, specifically section 4.2.5.1
When a type 3 LSA is sent from a PE router to a CE router, the DN bit [OSPF-DN] in the LSA Options field MUST be set. This is used to ensure that if any CE router sends this type 3 LSA to a PE router, the PE router will not redistribute it further.
When a PE router needs to distribute to a CE router a route that comes from a site outside the latter’s OSPF domain, the PE router presents itself as an ASBR (Autonomous System Border Router), and distributes the route in a type 5 LSA. The DN bit [OSPF-DN] MUST be set in these LSAs to ensure that they will be ignored by any other PE routers that receive them.