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Q51. Which one of the following is a threat related to the use of web-based client side input validation? 

A. Users would be able to alter the input after validation has occurred 

B. The web server would not be able to validate the input after transmission 

C. The client system could receive invalid input from the web server 

D. The web server would not be able to receive invalid input from the client 

Answer: A 


Q52. Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management? 

A. Regularly perform account re-validation and approval 

B. Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication 

C. Frequently review performed activities and request justification 

D. Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager 

Answer: A 


Q53. Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router? 

A. Network Address Translation (NAT) 

B. Application Proxy 

C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2 

D. Address Masking 

Answer: A 


Q54. When planning a penetration test, the tester will be MOST interested in which information? 

A. Places to install back doors 

B. The main network access points 

C. Job application handouts and tours 

D. Exploits that can attack weaknesses 

Answer: B 


Q55. In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill? 

A. A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions 

B. A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions 

C. A functional evacuation of personnel 

D. An activation of the backup site 

Answer: B 


Q56. DRAG DROP 

Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM). 

Answer: 


Q57. What is the FIRST step in developing a security test and its evaluation? 

A. Determine testing methods 

B. Develop testing procedures 

C. Identify all applicable security requirements 

D. Identify people, processes, and products not in compliance 

Answer: C 


Q58. During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. 

What is the best approach for the CISO? 

During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. 

What is the best approach for the CISO? 

A. Document the system as high risk 

B. Perform a vulnerability assessment 

C. Perform a quantitative threat assessment 

D. Notate the information and move on 

Answer: B 


Q59. Refer.to the information below to answer the question. 

In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files. 

In a Bell-LaPadula system, which user cannot write to File 3? 

A. User A 

B. User B 

C. User C 

D. User D 

Answer: D 


Q60. DRAG DROP 

In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?.

Answer: