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Q211. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring? 

A. Smurf Attack 

B. Man in the middle 

C. Backdoor 

D. Replay 

E. Spear Phishing 

F. Xmas Attack 

G. Blue Jacking 

H. Ping of Death 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The exhibit shows that all the computers on the network are being ‘pinged’. This indicates that the ping request was sent to the network broadcast address. We can also see that all the replies were received by one (probably with a spoofed address) host on the network. This is typical of a smurf attack. 

A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network. 


Q212. An administrator needs to secure a wireless network and restrict access based on the hardware address of the device. Which of the following solutions should be implemented? 

A. Use a stateful firewall 

B. Enable MAC filtering 

C. Upgrade to WPA2 encryption 

D. Force the WAP to use channel 1 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q213. Which of the following provides the HIGHEST level of confidentiality on a wireless network? 

A. Disabling SSID broadcast 

B. MAC filtering 

C. WPA2 

D. Packet switching 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) authentication protocols were designed to address the core, easy-to-crack problems of WEP. 


Q214. Ann has taken over as the new head of the IT department. One of her first assignments was to implement AAA in preparation for the company’s new telecommuting policy. When she takes inventory of the organizations existing network infrastructure, she makes note that it is a mix of several different vendors. Ann knows she needs a method of secure centralized access to the company’s network resources. Which of the following is the BEST service for Ann to implement? 

A. RADIUS 

B. LDAP 

C. SAML 

D. TACACS+ 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) networking protocol offers centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who make use of a network service. 


Q215. A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another? 

A. Implement a virtual firewall 

B. Install HIPS on each VM 

C. Virtual switches with VLANs 

D. Develop a patch management guide 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. 


Q216. A technician wants to verify the authenticity of the system files of a potentially compromised system. Which of the following can the technician use to verify if a system file was compromised? (Select TWO). 

A. AES 

B. PGP 

C. SHA 

D. MD5 

E. ECDHE 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 


Q217. Sara, a company’s security officer, often receives reports of unauthorized personnel having access codes to the cipher locks of secure areas in the building. Sara should immediately implement which of the following? 

A. Acceptable Use Policy 

B. Physical security controls 

C. Technical controls 

D. Security awareness training 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Security awareness and training include explaining policies, procedures, and current threats to both users and management. A security awareness and training program can do much to assist in your efforts to improve and maintain security. A good security awareness training program for the entire organization should cover the following areas: Importance of security; Responsibilities of people in the organization; Policies and procedures; Usage policies; Account and password-selection criteria as well as Social engineering prevention. 


Q218. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk of two or more companies working together under a Memorandum of Understanding? 

A. Budgetary considerations may not have been written into the MOU, leaving an entity to absorb more cost than intended at signing. 

B. MOUs have strict policies in place for services performed between the entities and the penalties for compromising a partner are high. 

C. MOUs are generally loose agreements and therefore may not have strict guidelines in place to protect sensitive data between the two entities. 

D. MOUs between two companies working together cannot be held to the same legal standards as SLAs. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Memorandum of Understanding This document is used in many settings in the information industry. It is a brief summary of which party is responsible for what portion of the work. For example, Company A may be responsible for maintaining the database server and Company B may be responsible for telecommunications. MOUs are not legally binding but they carry a degree of seriousness and mutual respect, stronger than a gentlemen’s agreement. Often, MOUs are the first steps towards a legal contract. 


Q219. Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to discover comprehensive security threats on a network? 

A. Design reviews 

B. Baseline reporting 

C. Vulnerability scan 

D. Code review 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities include computer systems that do not have the latest security patches installed. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security. Vulnerability scanning typically refers to the scanning of systems that are connected to the Internet but can also refer to system audits on internal networks that are not connected to the Internet in order to assess the threat of rogue software or malicious employees in an enterprise. 


Q220. A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments? 

A. User assigned privileges 

B. Password disablement 

C. Multiple account creation 

D. Group based privileges 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Group-based privileges assign privileges or access to a resource to all members of a group. Group-based access control grants every member of the group the same level of access to a specific object.