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Q221. In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability?
A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43
Answer: C
Q222. Which option is the default number of routes over which EIGRP can load balance?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B
Explanation:
By default, EIGRP load-shares over four equal-cost paths. For load sharing to happen, the routes to load-share over must show up in the IP forwarding table or with the show ip route command. Only when a route shows up in the forwarding table with multiple paths to it will load sharing occur.
Reference: http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCIE_Practical_Studies_I&seqNum=126
Q223. Which BGP feature allows a router to maintain its current BGP configuration while it advertises a different AS number to new connections?
A. local-AS
B. next-hop-self
C. allow-AS in
D. soft reset
Answer: A
Explanation:
The local-AS feature allows a router to appear to be a member of a second autonomous system (AS), in addition to its real AS. This feature can only be used for true eBGP peers. The local-AS feature is useful if ISP-A purchases ISP-B, but ISP-B's customers do not want to modify any peering arrangements or configurations. The local-AS feature allows routers in ISP-B to become members of ISP-A's AS. At the same time, these routers appear to their customers to retain their ISP-B AS number.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/13761-39.html
Q224. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IGMPv2 timer on the left to its default value on the right.
Answer:
Q225. Refer to the exhibit.
While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the error message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file.
What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be prevented?
A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
Answer: C
Explanation:
L3HWFORWADING-2
Error MessageC4K_L3HWFORWARDING-2-FWDCAMFULL:L3 routing table is full.
Switching to software forwarding.
The hardware routing table is full; forwarding takes place in the software instead. The switch performance might be degraded.
Recommended Action: Reduce the size of the routing table. Enter the ip cef command to return to hardware forwarding.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/31sg/system/message/message/emsg.html
Renew 400-101 test questions:
Q226. DRAG DROP
Drag each SNMP term on the left to the matching definition on the right.
Answer:
Q227. Which two statements are true about RSTP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RTSP uses a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
B. By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
C. If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration.
D. By default, RTSP uses the topology change TC flag.
E. If a port receives a superior BPDU, it immediately replies with its own information, and no reconfiguration is triggered.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The RSTP does not have a separate topology change notification (TCN) BPDU. It uses the topology change (TC) flag to show the topology changes.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-1_9_ea1/configuration/guide/scg/swmstp.html
Q228. Where should the passive-interface command be used?
A. Under the routing process for interfaces that need to be routed, but prevented from peering
B. under the routing process for interfaces that need to be routed and allowed to peer
C. under the interface configuration for interfaces that need to be routed, but prevented from peering
D. under the interface configuration for interfaces that need to be routed and allowed to peer
E. under the VTY configuration within global configuration mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Passive-interface is a feature you enable on a per interface basis which allows a particular interface to participate in a routing process but prevents that interface from forming neighbor relationships by not sending hello packets and discarding received hello packets.
Q229. Which attribute is not part of the BGP extended community when a PE creates a VPN-IPv4 route while running OSPF between PE-CE?
A. OSPF domain identifier
B. OSPF route type
C. OSPF router ID
D. MED
E. OSPF network type
Answer: E
Explanation:
By process of elimination, from RFC 4577:
For every address prefix that was installed in the VRF by one of its associated OSPF instances, the PE must create a VPN-IPv4 route in BGP. Each such route will have some of the following Extended Communities attributes:
– The OSPF Domain Identifier Extended Communities attribute. If the OSPF instance that installed the route has a non-NULL primary Domain Identifier, this MUST be present; if that OSPF instance has only a NULL Domain Identifier, it MAY be omitted.
– OSPF Route Type Extended Communities Attribute. This attribute MUST be present. It is encoded with a two-byte type field, and its type is 0306.
– OSPF Router ID Extended Communities Attribute. This OPTIONAL attribute specifies the OSPF Router ID of the system that is identified in the BGP Next Hop attribute. More precisely, it specifies the OSPF Router Id of the PE in the OSPF instance that installed the route into the VRF from which this route was exported.
– MED (Multi_EXIT_DISC attribute). By default, this SHOULD be set to the value of the OSPF distance associated with the route, plus 1.
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc4577
Q230. Which three statements about implementing a NAT application layer gateway in a network are true? (Choose three.)
A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it through the network.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An application-level gateway (ALG), also known as an application-layer gateway, is an application that translates the IP address information inside the payload of an application packet. An ALG is used to interpret the application-layer protocol and perform firewall and Network Address Translation (NAT) actions. These actions can be one or more of the following depending on your configuration of the firewall and NAT:
. Allow client applications to use dynamic TCP or UDP ports to communicate with the server application.
. Recognize application-specific commands and offer granular security control over them.
. Synchronize multiple streams or sessions of data between two hosts that are exchanging data.
. Translate the network-layer address information that is available in the application payload
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/nat-xe-3s-asr1k-book/fw-msrpc-supp.html