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Q101. Pete, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company, has increased his travel plans for the next two years to improve business relations. Which of the following would need to be in place in case something happens to Pete?
A. Succession planning
B. Disaster recovery
C. Separation of duty
D. Removing single loss expectancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open. By identifying key roles that cannot be left unfilled and associating internal employees who can step into these roles, you can groom those employees to make sure that they are up to speed when it comes time for them to fill those positions.
Q102. TION NO: 174
Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?
A. Placement of antenna
B. Disabling the SSID
C. Implementing WPA2
D. Enabling the MAC filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.
Q103. Which of the following software allows a network administrator to inspect the protocol header in order to troubleshoot network issues?
A. URL filter
B. Spam filter
C. Packet sniffer
D. Switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Every data packet transmitted across a network has a protocol header. To view a protocol header, you need to capture and view the contents of the packet with a packet sniffer.
A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer.
Q104. The security administrator is observing unusual network behavior from a workstation. The workstation is communicating with a known malicious destination over an encrypted tunnel. A full antivirus scan, with an updated antivirus definition file, does not show any signs of infection.
Which of the following has happened on the workstation?
A. Zero-day attack
B. Known malware infection
C. Session hijacking
D. Cookie stealing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability was unknown in that the full antivirus scan did not detect it. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q105. Which of the following describes the process of removing unnecessary accounts and services from an application to reduce risk exposure?
A. Error and exception handling
B. Application hardening
C. Application patch management
D. Cross-site script prevention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability. Reducing the surface of vulnerability typically includes removing unnecessary functions and features, removing unnecessary usernames or logins and disabling unnecessary services.
Q106. Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information.
Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking
Answer: A
Explanation:
The bins in this question will be secure bins designed to prevent someone accessing the ‘rubbish’ to learn sensitive information. Dumpster diving is looking for treasure in someone else's trash. (A dumpster is a large trash container.) In the world of information technology, dumpster diving is a technique used to retrieve information that could be used to carry out an attack on a computer network. Dumpster diving isn't limited to searching through the trash for obvious treasures like access codes or passwords written down on sticky notes. Seemingly innocent information like a phone list, calendar, or organizational chart can be used to assist an attacker using social engineering techniques to gain access to the network. To prevent dumpster divers from learning anything valuable from your trash, experts recommend that your company establish a disposal policy where all paper, including print-outs, is shredded in a cross-cut shredder before being recycled, all storage media is erased, and all staff is educated about the danger of untracked trash.
Q107. Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C
Explanation:
False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. This causes a significant administrative overhead because the reporting is what results in the false positives.
Q108. Which of the following is the BEST reason to provide user awareness and training programs for organizational staff?
A. To ensure proper use of social media
B. To reduce organizational IT risk
C. To detail business impact analyses
D. To train staff on zero-days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ideally, a security awareness training program for the entire organization should cover the following areas: Importance of security Responsibilities of people in the organization Policies and procedures Usage policies Account and password-selection criteria Social engineering prevention
You can accomplish this training either by using internal staff or by hiring outside trainers. This type of training will significantly reduce the organizational IT risk.
Q109.
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate if an organization's requirements mandate complete control over the data and applications stored in the cloud?
A. Hybrid cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Private cloud
D. Public cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q110. Pete, the system administrator, has concerns regarding users losing their company provided smartphones. Pete’s focus is on equipment recovery. Which of the following BEST addresses his concerns?
A. Enforce device passwords.
B. Use remote sanitation.
C. Enable GPS tracking.
D. Encrypt stored data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking can be used to identify its location of a stolen device and can allow authorities to recover the device. However, for GPS tracking to work, the device must have an Internet connection or a wireless phone service over which to send its location information.