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Free 220-1102 Demo Online For CompTIA Certifitcation:

NEW QUESTION 1
The audio on a user's mobile device is inconsistent when the user uses wireless headphones and moves around. Which of the following should a technician perform to troubleshoot the issue?

  • A. Verify the Wi-Fi connection status.
  • B. Enable the NFC setting on the device.
  • C. Bring the device within Bluetooth range.
  • D. Turn on device tethering.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bringing the device within Bluetooth range is the best way to troubleshoot the issue of inconsistent audio when using wireless headphones and moving around.
Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, typically up to 10 meters or 33 feet. If the device is too far from the headphones, the Bluetooth signal may be weak or interrupted, resulting in poor audio quality or loss of connection.

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician is building a new desktop machine for a user who will be using the workstation to render 3-D promotional movies. Which of the following is the most important component?

  • A. Dedicated GPU
  • B. DDR5 SODIMM
  • C. NVMe disk
  • D. 64-bit CPU

Answer: A

Explanation:
A dedicated GPU (graphics processing unit) is the most important component for rendering 3-D promotional movies, as it can handle the complex calculations and graphics operations required for creating realistic and high-quality images. A dedicated GPU has its own memory and processor, which are optimized for graphics tasks. A dedicated GPU can also support multiple monitors, high resolutions, and advanced features such as ray tracing12.
References: 1 What Kind of Computer Do You Need for 3D Rendering in 2021?(https://kitbash3d.com/a/blog/best-computer-for-3d-rendering-2021)2 How to Choose the Best Hardware for a 3D Artist - GarageFarm(https://garagefarm.net/blog/how-to-
220-1102 dumps exhibitchoose-the-best-hardware-for-a-3d-artist).

NEW QUESTION 3
A company recently outsourced its night-shift cleaning service. A technician is concerned about having unsupervised contractors in the building. Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed? (Select two).

  • A. 220-1102 dumps exhibitImplementing data-at-rest encryption
  • B. Disabling AutoRun
  • C. Restricting user permissions
  • D. Restricting log-in times
  • E. Enabling a screen lock
  • F. Disabling local administrator accounts

Answer: DE

Explanation:
The correct answers are D. Restricting log-in times and E. Enabling a screen lock. These are the security measures that can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed by unsupervised contractors in the building.
✑ Restricting log-in times means setting a policy that allows users to log in only
during certain hours, such as the regular working hours of the company. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who work at night1.
✑ Enabling a screen lock means setting a policy that requires users to enter a
password or a PIN to unlock their screens after a period of inactivity. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who might try to use the computers when the users are away2.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 19, section 2.3. 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 20, section 2.4.

NEW QUESTION 4
A change advisory board just approved a change request. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in the change process?

  • A. End user acceptance
  • B. Perform risk analysis
  • C. Communicate to stakeholders
  • D. Sandbox testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
The risk analysis should be performed before it's taken to the board. The step after the board approves the change is End User Agreenment Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ru77iZxuElA&list=PLG49S3nxzAnna96gzhJrzkii4hH_mgW4b&index=59
220-1102 dumps exhibit

NEW QUESTION 5
A corporate smartphone was stored for five months after setup. During this time, the company did not have any system updates. When the phone is turned on, an application runs, but it crashes intermittently. Which of the following should a technician do next?

  • A. Restart the phone.
  • B. Reimage the OS.
  • C. Reinstall the application.
  • D. Clear the cache.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reinstalling the application is the best option to fix the intermittent crashing of the application on the corporate smartphone. Reinstalling the application will ensure that the latest version of the app is installed, which may have bug fixes and compatibility updates that can resolve the crashing issue. Reinstalling the app will also clear any corrupted or outdated data or cache that may cause the app to malfunction.
The other options are not as effective or appropriate as reinstalling the app. Restarting the phone may temporarily fix the issue, but it will not address the root cause of the app crashing, which may be related to the app itself or its data. Reimaging the OS is a drastic and unnecessary measure that will erase all the data and settings on the phone and restore it to its factory state. This will also remove all the other apps and files that may be important for the corporate use of the phone. Clearing the cache may help to free up some space and improve the performance of the app, but it will not update the app or fix any bugs that may cause the app to crash.
References:
✑ Top 5 Reasons Behind Your App Crash and Solutions To Fix Them1
✑ How to Stop Apps From Crashing on Android2
✑ Why are my Android phone apps crashing or closing & how to fix the issue3

NEW QUESTION 6
A user is setting up a new Windows 10 laptop. Which of the following Windows settings should be used to input the SSID and password?

  • A. 220-1102 dumps exhibitNetwork & Internet
  • B. System
  • C. Personalization
  • D. Accounts

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Network & Internet settings in Windows 10 allow the user to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network, as well as manage other network-related options, such as airplane mode, mobile hotspot, VPN, proxy, etc1. To access the Network & Internet settings, the user can select the Start button, then select Settings > Network & Internet2. Alternatively, the user can right-click the Wi-Fi icon on the taskbar and click "Open Network & Internet Settings"3.
The System settings in Windows 10 allow the user to configure the display, sound, notifications, power, storage, and other system-related options1. The Personalization settings in Windows 10 allow the user to customize the background, colors, lock screen, themes, fonts, and other appearance-related options1. The Accounts settings in Windows 10 allow the user to manage the user accounts, sign-in options, sync settings, and other account-related options1. None of these settings can be used to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network.
References:
✑ The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide1, page 221, 222, 223, 224.

NEW QUESTION 7
A technician, who is working at a local office, has found multiple copies of home edition software installed on computers. Which of the following does this MOST likely violate?

  • A. EULA
  • B. Pll
  • C. DRM
  • D. Open-source agreement

Answer: A

Explanation:
The installation of home edition software on computers at a local office most likely violates the EULA. EULA stands for End User License Agreement and is a legal contract that specifies the terms and conditions for using a software product or service. EULA typically covers topics such as license scope, duration and limitations, rights and obligations of the parties, warranties and disclaimers, liability and indemnity clauses, and termination procedures. EULA may also restrict the use of home edition software to personal or non- commercial purposes only, and prohibit the use of home edition software in business or professional settings. Violating EULA may result in legal actions or penalties from the software vendor or developer. PII stands for Personally Identifiable Information and is any information that can be used to identify or locate an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email address, social security number or credit card number. PII is not related to software installation or licensing but to data protection and privacy. DRM stands for Digital Rights Management and is a technology that controls or restricts the access and
220-1102 dumps exhibituse of digital content, such as music, movies, books or games. DRM is not related to software installation or licensing but to content distribution and piracy prevention. Open- source agreement is a type of license that allows users to access, modify and distribute the source code of a software product or service freely and openly. Open-source agreement does not restrict the use of software to home edition only but encourages collaboration and innovation among developers and users. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.1

NEW QUESTION 8
A user's system is infected with malware. A technician updates the anti-malware software and runs a scan that removes the malware. After the user reboots the system, it once again becomes infected with malware. Which of the following will MOST likely help to permanently remove the malware?

  • A. Enabling System Restore
  • B. Educating the user
  • C. Booting into safe mode
  • D. Scheduling a scan

Answer: B

Explanation:
Although updating the anti-malware software and running scans are important steps in removing malware, they may not be sufficient to permanently remove the malware if the user keeps engaging in behaviors that leave the system vulnerable, such as downloading unknown files or visiting malicious websites. Therefore, educating the user on safe computing practices is the best way to prevent future infections and permanently remove the malware.
Enabling System Restore, Booting into safe mode, and scheduling a scan are not the most efficient ways to permanently remove the malware. Enabling System Restore and Booting into safe mode may help in some cases, but they may not be sufficient to permanently remove the malware. Scheduling a scan is also important for detecting and removing malware, but it may not be sufficient to prevent future infections.
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-a-220-1102-exam- objectives-(3-0)

NEW QUESTION 9
A technician is troubleshooting a PC because the user has reported strange pop-up windows and computer performance issues. Which of the following actions should the technician take next?

  • A. Isolate the machine from the network.
  • B. Scan the system for hidden files.
  • C. 220-1102 dumps exhibitDisable unused ports.
  • D. Install antivirus software.
  • E. Reconfigure the firewall.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Isolating the machine from the network is a good practice when troubleshooting a PC that is suspected of being infected with malware. This can prevent the malware from spreading to other devices on the network or communicating with external servers that may control or exploit the malware. Isolating the machine can be done by disconnecting the network cable, disabling the wireless adapter, or blocking the network traffic with a firewall.

NEW QUESTION 10
The courts determined that a cybercrimes case could no longer be prosecuted due to the agency's handling of evidence. Which of the following was MOST likely violated during the investigation?

  • A. Open-source software
  • B. EULA
  • C. Chain of custody
  • D. 220-1102 dumps exhibitAUP

Answer: C

Explanation:
Chain of custody is a process that documents how evidence is collected, handled, stored and transferred during a cybercrime investigation. It ensures that the evidence is authentic, reliable and admissible in court. If the chain of custody is violated during an investigation, it can compromise the integrity of the evidence and lead to the case being dismissed. Open-source software, EULA (end-user license agreement) and AUP (acceptable use policy) are not related to cybercrime investigations or evidence handling. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-chain-of-custody https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 11
In an organization with a standardized set of installed software, a developer submits a request to have new software installed. The company does not currently have a license for this software, but the developer already downloaded the installation file and is requesting that the technician install it. The developer states that the management team approved the business use of this software. Which of the following is the best action for the technician to take?

  • A. Contact the software vendor to obtain the license for the user, and assist the user with installation once the license is purchased.
  • B. Run a scan on the downloaded installation file to confirm that it is free of malicious software, install the software, and document the software installation process.
  • C. Indicate to the developer that formal approval is needed; then, the IT team should220-1102 dumps exhibitinvestigate the software and the impact it will have on the organization before installing the software.
  • D. Install the software and run a full system scan with antivirus software to confirm that the operating system is free of malicious software.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Installing new software on an organization’s system or device can have various implications, such as compatibility, security, performance, licensing, and compliance issues. Therefore, it is important to follow the best practices for software installation, such as doing research on the software, checking the system requirements, scanning the installation file for malware, and obtaining the proper license345. The technician should not install the software without formal approval from the management team, as this could violate the organization’s policies or regulations. The technician should also not install the software without investigating the software and its impact on the organization, as this could introduce potential risks or problems to the system or device. The technician should indicate to the developer that formal approval is needed, and then work with the IT team to evaluate the software and its suitability for the organization before installing it

NEW QUESTION 12
An administrator responded to an incident where an employee copied financial data to a portable hard drive and then left the company with the data. The administrator documented220-1102 dumps exhibitthe movement of the evidence. Which of the following concepts did the administrator demonstrate?

  • A. Preserving chain of custody
  • B. Implementing data protection policies
  • C. Informing law enforcement
  • D. Creating a summary of the incident

Answer: A

Explanation:
Preserving chain of custody is a concept that refers to the documentation and tracking of who handled, accessed, modified, or transferred a piece of evidence, when, where, why, and how. Preserving chain of custody can help establish the authenticity, integrity, and reliability of the evidence, as well as prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of the evidence. An administrator who documented the movement of the evidence demonstrated the concept of preserving chain of custody. Implementing data protection policies, informing law enforcement, and creating a summary of the incident are not concepts that describe the action of documenting the movement of the evidence.

NEW QUESTION 13
A company's assets are scanned annually. Which of the following will most likely help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost?

  • A. Creating a database
  • B. Assigning users to assets
  • C. 220-1102 dumps exhibitInventorying asset tags
  • D. Updating the procurement account owners

Answer: A

Explanation:
Creating a database is the most likely option to help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost. A database can store and organize information about the assets, such as purchase date, depreciation value, maintenance cost, warranty status, and replacement cost. Assigning users to assets, inventorying asset tags, and updating the procurement account owners are important steps for asset management, but they do not directly provide a holistic view of asset cost. References:
✑ Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18
✑ CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 101

NEW QUESTION 14
A developer receives the following error while trying to install virtualization software on a workstation:
VTx not supported by system
Which of the following upgrades will MOST likely fix the issue?

  • A. Processor
  • B. Hard drive
  • C. 220-1102 dumps exhibitMemory
  • D. Video card

Answer: A

Explanation:
The processor is the component that determines if the system supports virtualization technology (VTx), which is required for running virtualization software. The hard drive, memory and video card are not directly related to VTx support, although they may affect the performance of the virtual machines. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-virtualization https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is command options is used to display hidden files and directories?

  • A. -a
  • B. -s
  • C. -lh
  • D. -t

Answer: A

Explanation:
The -a option is used to display hidden files and directories in a command- line interface. Hidden files and directories are those that start with a dot (.) and are normally not shown by default. The -a option stands for “all” and shows all files and directories, including the hidden ones. The -a option can be used with commands such as ls, dir, or find to list or search for hidden files and directories. The -s, -lh, and -t options are not used to display hidden files and directories. The -s option stands for “size” and shows the size of files or directories in bytes. The -lh option stands for “long human-readable” and shows the size of files or directories in a more readable format, such as KB, MB, or GB. The -t option stands for “time” and sorts the files or directories by modification time. References:
✑ Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 17
✑ CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 107

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following Is used to identify potential issues with a proposed change poor lo implementation?

  • A. Request form
  • B. Rollback plan
  • C. End-user acceptance
  • D. Sandbox testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Sandbox testing is a method of identifying potential issues with a proposed change prior to implementation. It involves creating a simulated or isolated environment220-1102 dumps exhibitthat mimics the real system and applying the change to it. This can help to verify that the change works as expected and does not cause any errors or conflicts. Request form, rollback plan and end-user acceptance are other components of a change management process, but they do not involve identifying issues with a change. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sandbox-testing https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 17
Upon downloading a new ISO, an administrator is presented with the following string: 59d15a16ce90cBcc97fa7c211b767aB
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this string?

  • A. XSS verification
  • B. AES-256 verification
  • C. Hash verification
  • D. Digital signature verification

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hash verification is a process that verifies the integrity of a file by comparing the hash value of the downloaded file to the hash value provided by the source1

NEW QUESTION 18
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