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NEW QUESTION 1

A technician is troubleshooting servers with high CPU usage. While trying to connect, the technician needs to open a port for remote access. Which of the following ports should the
technician open?

  • A. 443
  • B. 3321
  • C. 8080
  • D. 5900

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port 5900 is the default port used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC), a graphical desktop-sharing system that allows remote access to another computer’s screen, keyboard and mouse1. VNC is one of the tools that can be used for remote troubleshooting of servers with high CPU usage, as it enables the technician to see the server’s desktop and perform actions on it. Port 5900 is also one of the ports listed in the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam objectives under the section "1.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues"2.
The other ports are not commonly used for remote access. Port 443 is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the communication between a web browser and a web server3. Port 3321 is used for Telepathy Broker Service, a service that provides communication between applications and telephony devices4. Port 8080 is used for HTTP Alternate, an alternative port for HTTP that is often used by web servers for testing or proxy purposes5.
References
1: Port 5900: What Is It Used for & How to Open It for RDP
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: [What is HTTPS? - Definition from WhatIs.com]
4: [Telepathy Broker Service - Port 3321 - TCP/UDP]
5: [What is Port 8080? Why do some processes use this port?]

NEW QUESTION 2

A technician is configuring a wireless network and needs to ensure users agree to an AUP before connecting. Which of the following should be implemented to achieve this goal?

  • A. Captive portal
  • B. Geofencing
  • C. Wireless client isolation
  • D. Role-based access

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following TCP ports is used by the Windows OS for file sharing?

  • A. 53
  • B. 389
  • C. 445
  • D. 1433

Answer: C

Explanation:
TCP port 445 is used by the Windows OS for file sharing. It is also known as SMB (Server Message Block) or CIFS (Common Internet File System) and allows users to access files, printers, and other shared resources on a network. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/storage/file-server/troubleshoot/detect-enable-and-disable-smbv1-v2-v3

NEW QUESTION 4

The network engineer receives a new router to use for WAN connectivity. Which of the following best describes the layer the network engineer should connect the new router to?

  • A. Core
  • B. Leaf
  • C. Distribution
  • D. Access

Answer: C

Explanation:
The distribution layer is the layer that connects the access layer to the core layer in a hierarchical network design. The distribution layer is responsible for routing, filtering, and policy enforcement between the LAN and the WAN. A router is a layer 3 device that can perform these functions and connect to different WAN technologies.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 151
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 322
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Cram, page 233

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following would enable a network technician to implement dynamic routing?

  • A. An IPS
  • B. A bridge
  • C. A Layer 3 switch
  • D. A hub

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

A company hired a technician to find all the devices connected within a network. Which of the following software tools would BEST assist the technician in completing this task?

  • A. IP scanner
  • B. Terminal emulator
  • C. NetFlow analyzer
  • D. Port scanner

Answer: A

Explanation:
To find all devices connected within a network, a technician can use an IP scanner. An IP scanner sends a ping request to all IP addresses within a specified range and then identifies the active devices that respond to the request.

NEW QUESTION 7

A cafeteria is lacing lawsuits related to criminal internet access that was made over its guest network. The marketing team, however, insists on keeping the cafeteria phone number as the wireless passphrase. Which of the following actions would Improve wireless security while accommodating the marketing team and accepting the terms of use?

  • A. Setting WLAN security to use EAP-TLS
  • B. Deploying a captive portal tor user authentication
  • C. Using geofencing to limit the area covered by the WLAN
  • D. Configuring guest network isolation

Answer: B

Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that is presented to a user before they are allowed to access a network. It is used to authenticate users and to ensure that all users have accepted the terms of use for the network. By deploying a captive portal, the cafeteria can require users to enter their phone number as the passphrase, while still providing an additional layer of security. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, 8th Edition, page 182.

NEW QUESTION 8

A network administrator is reviewing the network device logs on a syslog server. The messages are normal but the stamps on the messages are incorrect. Which of the following actions should the administrator take to ensure the log message time stamps are correct?

  • A. Change the NTP settings on the network device
  • B. Change the time on the syslog server
  • C. Update the network device firmware
  • D. Adjust the timeout settings on the syslog server
  • E. Adjust the SSH settings on the network device.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

During a risk assessment which of the following should be considered when planning to mitigate high CPU utilization of a firewall?

  • A. Recovery time objective
  • B. Uninterruptible power supply
  • C. NIC teaming
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: D

Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum tolerable length of time that a computer, system, network or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs. This does nothing to help with CPU utilization. Load balancing does this.

NEW QUESTION 10

A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a report, the engineer finds hundreds of CRC errors on an interface. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these errors?

  • A. A bad wire on the Cat 5e cable
  • B. The wrong VLAN assignment to the switchport
  • C. A misconfigured QoS setting on the router
  • D. Both sides of the switch trunk set to full duplex

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:
* 1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments
* 2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.
* 3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
N10-008 dumps exhibit
N10-008 dumps exhibit


Solution:
N10-008 dumps exhibit

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

A PC and a network server have no network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping command from a Windows workstation while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?

  • A. ping —w
  • B. ping -i
  • C. ping —s
  • D. ping —t

Answer: D

Explanation:
ping -t is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to send continuous ping requests to a target until stopped by pressing Ctrl-C. This can help the technician run a constant ping command while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. ping -w is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to specify a timeout value in milliseconds for each ping request. ping -i is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the time interval in seconds between each ping request. ping -s is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the size of the data payload in bytes for each ping request.
References: How to Use the Ping Command in Windows - Lifewire (https://www.lifewire.com/ping-command-2618099)

NEW QUESTION 13

A non-employee was able to enter a server room. Which of the following could have prevented this from happening?

  • A. A security camera
  • B. A biometric reader
  • C. OTP key fob
  • D. Employee training

Answer: B

Explanation:
A biometric reader is a device that scans a person’s physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris, or face, and compares them to a database of authorized users. A biometric reader can be used to restrict access to a server room and prevent unauthorized entry. A biometric reader provides a high level of security and cannot be easily bypassed or duplicated.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.1: Summarize the importance of physical security controls.

NEW QUESTION 14

A senior administrator has been directed to incorporate AAA services within a domain environment for regulatory compliance purposes. Which of the following standards
will enable the use of an AAA server in a domain environment?

  • A. 802.1Q
  • B. 802.1X
  • C. 802.3bt
  • D. 802.11h

Answer: B

Explanation:
* 802.1X is a standard that enables the use of an AAA server in a domain environment by providing port-based network access control. 802.1X authenticates users or devices before granting them access to the network resources, and can also authorize them based on their roles or policies. 802.1X can work with different AAA protocols, such as RADIUS or TACACS+, to communicate with the AAA server.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 211
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 382
✑ Configuring AAA Services - Cisco3

NEW QUESTION 15

Users are reporting performance issues when attempting to access the main fileshare server. Which of the following steps should a network administrator perform next based on the network troubleshooting methodology?

  • A. Implement a fix to resolve the connectivity issues.
  • B. Determine if anything has changed.
  • C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
  • D. Document all findings, actions, and lessons learned.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the network troubleshooting methodology, the first step is to identify the problem and gather information about the current state of the network using the network troubleshooting tools that are available1. The next step is to determine if anything has changed in the network configuration, environment, or usage that could have caused or contributed to the performance issues1. This step helps to narrow down the possible causes and eliminate irrelevant factors. For example, the network administrator could check if there were any recent updates, patches, or modifications to the fileshare server or the network devices that connect to it. They could also check if there was an increase in network traffic or demand for the fileshare server resources2.
The other options are not correct because they are not the next steps in the network troubleshooting methodology. Implementing a fix to resolve the connectivity issues (A) is premature without determining the root cause of the problem. Establishing a theory of probable cause © is a later step that requires testing and verification. Documenting all findings, actions, and lessons learned (D) is the final step that should be done after resolving the problem and restoring normal network operations1.

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following cloud deployment models involves servers that are hosted at a company's property and are only used by that company?

  • A. Public
  • B. Private
  • C. Hybrid
  • D. Community

Answer: B

Explanation:
A private cloud deployment model involves servers that are hosted at a company’s property and are only used by that company. A private cloud provides exclusive access and control over the cloud resources to the company, as well as higher security and privacy. However, a private cloud also requires more investment and maintenance from the company, compared to other cloud deployment models1

NEW QUESTION 17
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