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NEW QUESTION 1

The SIEM at an organization has detected suspicious traffic coming a workstation in its internal network. An analyst in the SOC the workstation and discovers malware that is associated with a botnet is installed on the device A review of the logs on the workstation reveals that the privileges of the local account were escalated to a local administrator. To which of the following groups should the analyst report this real-world event?

  • A. The NOC team
  • B. The vulnerability management team
  • C. The CIRT
  • D. The read team

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT) is responsible for handling incidents and ensuring that the incident response plan is followed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following social engineering attacks best describes an email that is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others?

  • A. Hoaxing
  • B. Pharming
  • C. Watering-hole
  • D. Phishing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hoaxing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending false or misleading information via email or other means to trick recipients into believing something that is not true. Hoaxing emails often contain a request or an incentive for the recipients to forward the email to others, such as a warning of a virus, a promise of a reward, or a petition for a cause. The goal of hoaxing is to spread misinformation, cause panic, waste resources, or damage reputations.
A hoaxing email is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others, which can increase the reach and impact of the hoax.

NEW QUESTION 3

An employee received multiple messages on a mobile device. The messages instructing the employee to pair the device to an unknown device. Which of the following BEST describes What a malicious person might be doing to cause this issue to occur?

  • A. Jamming
  • B. Bluesnarfing
  • C. Evil twin
  • D. Rogue access point

Answer: B

Explanation:
Bluesnarfing is a hacking technique that exploits Bluetooth connections to snatch data from a wireless device. An attacker can perform bluesnarfing when the Bluetooth function is on and your device is discoverable by other devices within range. In some cases, attackers can even make calls from their victim’s phon1e.

NEW QUESTION 4

The new Chief Information Security Officer at a company has asked the security learn to implement stronger user account policies. The new policies require:
• Users to choose a password unique to their last ten passwords
• Users to not log in from certain high-risk countries
Which of the following should the security team implement? (Select two).

  • A. Password complexity
  • B. Password history
  • C. Geolocation
  • D. Geospatial
  • E. Geotagging
  • F. Password reuse

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

NEW QUESTION 5

The following are the logs of a successful attack.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?

  • A. Password history
  • B. Account expiration
  • C. Password complexity
  • D. Account lockout

Answer: C

Explanation:
To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.
Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.
The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

NEW QUESTION 6

An organization experiences a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. Which of the following logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host? (Select two).

  • A. Application
  • B. Authentication
  • C. Error
  • D. Network
  • E. Firewall
  • F. System

Answer: DE

Explanation:
Network and firewall logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host in a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. A command-and-control server is a central server that communicates with and controls malware-infected devices or bots. A command-and-control server can send commands to the bots, such as downloading additional malware, stealing data, or launching attacks. Network logs can help to identify any suspicious or anomalous network traffic, such as connections to unknown or malicious domains, high-volume data transfers, or unusual protocols or ports. Firewall logs can help to identify any blocked or allowed traffic based on the firewall rules, such as connections to or from the command-and-control server, or any attempts to bypass the firewall. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibithttps://www.howtogeek.com/726136/what-is-a-command-and-control-server-for-malware/

NEW QUESTION 7

A security analyst needs to implement an MDM solution for BYOD users that will allow the company to retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO).

  • A. Full-device encryption
  • B. Network usage rules
  • C. Geofencing
  • D. Containerization
  • E. Application whitelisting
  • F. Remote control

Answer: DE

Explanation:
MDM solutions emerged to solve problems created by BYOD. With MDM, IT teams can remotely wipe devices clean if they are lost or stolen. MDM also makes the life of an IT administrator a lot easier as it allows them to enforce corporate policies, apply software updates, and even ensure that password protection is used on each device. Containerization and application whitelisting are two features of MDM that can help retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the devices are lost or stolen.
Containerization is a technique that creates a separate and secure space on the device for work-related data and applications. This way, personal and corporate data are isolated from each other, and IT admins can manage only the work container without affecting the user’s privacy. Containerization also allows IT admins to remotely wipe only the work container if needed, leaving the personal data intact.
Application whitelisting is a technique that allows only authorized applications to run on the device. This way, IT admins can prevent users from installing or using malicious or unapproved applications that might compromise the security of corporate data. Application whitelisting also allows IT admins to control which applications can access corporate resources, such as email servers or cloud storage.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.office1.com/blog/byod-vs-mdm

NEW QUESTION 8

A large enterprise has moved all its data to the cloud behind strong authentication and encryption. A sales director recently had a laptop stolen, and later, enterprise data was found to have been compromised from a local database. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause?

  • A. Shadow IT
  • B. Credential stuffing
  • C. SQL injection
  • D. Man in the browser
  • E. Bluejacking

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the enterprise data being compromised from a local database is Shadow IT. Shadow IT is the use of unauthorized applications or devices by employees to access company resources. In this case, the sales director's laptop was stolen, and the attacker was able to use it to access the local database, which was not secured properly, allowing unauthorized access to sensitive data. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

NEW QUESTION 9

A company recently enhanced mobile device configuration by implementing a set of security controls: biometrics, context-aware authentication, and full device encryption. Even with these settings in place, an unattended phone was used by a malicious actor to access corporate data.
Which of the following additional controls should be put in place first?

  • A. GPS tagging
  • B. Remote wipe
  • C. Screen lock timer
  • D. SEAndroid

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to NIST Special Publication 1800-4B1, some of the security controls that can be used to protect mobile devices include:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Root and jailbreak detection: ensures that the security architecture for a mobile device has not been compromised.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Encryption: protects the data stored on the device and in transit from unauthorized access.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Authentication: verifies the identity of the user and the device before granting access to enterprise resources.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Remote wipe: allows the organization to erase the data on the device in case of loss or theft.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Screen lock timer: sets a time limit for the device to lock itself after a period of inactivity.

NEW QUESTION 10

The Chief Technology Officer of a local college would like visitors to utilize the school's WiFi but must be able to associate potential malicious activity to a specific person. Which of the following would BEST allow this objective to be met?

  • A. Requiring all new, on-site visitors to configure their devices to use WPS
  • B. Implementing a new SSID for every event hosted by the college that has visitors
  • C. Creating a unique PSK for every visitor when they arrive at the reception area
  • D. Deploying a captive portal to capture visitors' MAC addresses and names

Answer: D

Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that requires visitors to authenticate or agree to an acceptable use policy before allowing access to the network. By capturing visitors' MAC addresses and names, potential malicious activity can be traced back to a specific person.

NEW QUESTION 11

A software company is analyzing a process that detects software vulnerabilities at the earliest stage possible. The goal is to scan the source looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. Which of the following would BEST assist the company with this objective?

  • A. Use fuzzing testing
  • B. Use a web vulnerability scanner
  • C. Use static code analysis
  • D. Use a penetration-testing OS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Using static code analysis would be the best approach to scan the source code looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. This method involves analyzing the source code without actually running the software, which can identify security vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other testing methods. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, pp. 292-295

NEW QUESTION 12

A security analyst is concerned about traffic initiated to the dark web from the corporate LAN. Which of the following networks should the analyst monitor?

  • A. SFTP
  • B. AIS
  • C. Tor
  • D. loC

Answer: C

Explanation:
Tor (The Onion Router) is a network and a software that enables anonymous communication over the internet. It routes the traffic through multiple relays and encrypts it at each layer, making it difficult to trace or monitor. It can access the dark web, which is a part of the internet that is hidden from conventional search engines and requires special software or configurations to access

NEW QUESTION 13

Security analysts notice a server login from a user who has been on vacation for two weeks, The an-alysts confirm that the user did not log in to the system while on vacation After reviewing packet capture the analysts notice the following:
Which of the following occurred?

  • A. A buffer overflow was exploited to gain unauthorized access.
  • B. The user's account was con-promised, and an attacker changed the login credentials.
  • C. An attacker used a pass-the-hash attack to gain access.
  • D. An insider threat with username logged in to the account.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A pass-the-hash attack is a type of replay attack that captures and uses the hash of a password. The attacker then attempts to log on as the user with the stolen hash. This type of attack is possible be-cause some authentication protocols send hashes over the network instead of plain text passwords. The packet capture shows that the attacker used NTLM authentication, which is vulnerable to pass-the-hash attacks

NEW QUESTION 14

During a recent cybersecurity audit, the auditors pointed out various types of vulnerabilities in the production area. The production area hardware runs applications that are critical to production Which of the following describes what the company should do first to lower the risk to the
Production the hardware.

  • A. Back up the hardware.
  • B. Apply patches.
  • C. Install an antivirus solution.
  • D. Add a banner page to the hardware.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Applying patches is the first step to lower the risk to the production hardware, as patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in the software or firmware. Patches can prevent attackers from exploiting known vulnerabilities and compromising the production hardware. Applying patches should be done regularly and in a timely manner, following a patch management policy and process. References: 1
CompTIA Security+
Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize
secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of
embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/patch-management-best-practices

NEW QUESTION 15

An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include:
* Check-in/checkout of credentials
* The ability to use but not know the password
* Automated password changes
* Logging of access to credentials
Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

  • A. OAuth 2.0
  • B. Secure Enclave
  • C. A privileged access management system
  • D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

Answer: C

Explanation:
A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharin2g3.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing password2s.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23
. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password
reuse or compromise2.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.
A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.
A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.
A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

NEW QUESTION 16

Developers are writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day. where it is tested automatically. Which of the following concepts does this best represent?

  • A. Functional testing
  • B. Stored procedures
  • C. Elasticity
  • D. Continuous Integration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Continuous Integration is the concept that best represents developers writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day, where it is tested automatically. Continuous Integration is a software development practice that involves integrating code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and running automated tests to ensure quality and functionality. Continuous Integration can help to detect and fix errors early, improve collaboration, reduce rework, and accelerate delivery. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-devops
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following BEST describes the team that acts as a referee during a penetration-testing exercise?

  • A. White team
  • B. Purple team
  • C. Green team
  • D. Blue team
  • E. Red team

Answer: A

Explanation:
During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.

NEW QUESTION 18

A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One of the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability to use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even through the data is still viewable from the user’s PCs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  • A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts
  • B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file
  • C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.config instead of using the sshd.conf
  • D. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSH stands for Secure Shell Protocol, which is a cryptographic network protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution on a network device12. SSH can encrypt both the authentication information and the data being exchanged between the client and the server2. SSH can be used to access and manage a NAS device remotely3.

NEW QUESTION 19

A security analyst is investigating a report from a penetration test. During the penetration test, consultants were able to download sensitive data from a back-end server. The back-end server was exposing an API that should have only been available from the companVs mobile application. After reviewing the back-end server logs, the security analyst finds the following entries
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the security control bypass?

  • A. IP address allow list
  • B. user-agent spoofing
  • C. WAF bypass
  • D. Referrer manipulation

Answer: B

Explanation:
User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.

NEW QUESTION 20

An employee's company account was used in a data breach Interviews with the employee revealed:
• The employee was able to avoid changing passwords by using a previous password again.
• The account was accessed from a hostile, foreign nation, but the employee has never traveled to any other countries.
Which of the following can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccuring? (Select TWO)

  • A. Geographic dispersal
  • B. Password complexity
  • C. Password history
  • D. Geotagging
  • E. Password lockout
  • F. Geofencing

Answer: CF

Explanation:
two possible solutions that can be implemented to prevent these issues from reoccurring are password history and geofenc1in2g. Password history is a feature that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords1. This can enhance password security by forcing users to create new and unique passwords periodically1. Password history can be configured by setting a policy that specifies how many previous passwords are remembered and how often users must change their passwords1.
Geofencing is a feature that restricts access to a system or network based on the geographic location of the user or device2. This can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access from hostile or foreign region2s. Geofencing can be implemented by using GPS, IP address, or other methods to determine the location of the user or device and compare it with a predefined set of boundaries2.

NEW QUESTION 21
......

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